Discussion:
Still no refutation: No valid construction of real numbers - 6/14/2015
(too old to reply)
John Gabriel
2015-06-14 00:44:46 UTC
Permalink
The following link explains:

http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-equal-one-772.html#post40616

The objects I use, that is, lim (n->oo) [L_n(m), U_n(m)] are *exactly* D. Cuts. The poor idiot Dedekind could not describe them as precisely as I did.

Moron academics hate this proof because it exposes their stupidity.
Dan Christensen
2015-06-14 01:47:00 UTC
Permalink
The following...
Troll Boy got his butt kicked when he first posted this nonsense here. See: https://groups.google.com/forum/#!topic/sci.math/zOBb40GDMO8



What newcomers to sci.math should know about Psycho Troll John Gabriel, in his own words as posted here at sci.math:

JG's God Complex:

"I am the Creator of this galaxy."
-- March 19, 2015

"I am the last word on everything."
-- May 6, 2015

"Whatever I imagine is real because whatever I imagine is well defined."
-- March 26, 2015

"Unless I think it's logic, it's not... There are no rules in mathematics... As I have repeatedly stated, if there were to be rules, I'd be making the rules."
-- March 17, 2015


JG's Final Solution:

"Hitler was a genius and a very talented artist... As from a moral point of view, again his actions can't be judged, because his morals are different." (Like JG's morals?)
-- March 18, 2015

"I will point out a few facts about Hitler that most of you arrogant idiots didn't know or refused to acknowledge because your Jewish overlords do not allow you...

"Unfortunately, Hitler's henchmen got the wrong Jews...

(Note: When repeatedly asked if they should have gotten Jews like Albert Einstein, JG has refused to comment. You figure it out, folks.)

"It would be a very good idea to round up all the academic idiots, gas them and incinerate the useless lot. Only those that pass John Gabriel's exam should be allowed to live." (Charming fellow.)
-- July 13, 2014


JG's Just Plain Stupid:

"1/0 is not undefined."
-- May 19, 2015

"1/3 does NOT mean 1 divided by 3 and never has meant that"
-- February 8, 2015

"The square root of 2 and pi are NOT numbers."
-- May 28, 2015

"By definition, a line is the distance between two points."
-- April 13, 2015

"So, 'is a member of' = 'is a subset of.'"
-- May 16, 2015

"There is no such thing as a continuous real number line."
-- March 24, 2015

"Indeed, there is no such thing as an instantaneous speed -- certainly not with respect to the calculus." (Note: Instantaneous speed is indicated by the speedometer in a car. Another Jewish conspiracy, JG?)
-- March 17, 2015

"Proofs had nothing to do with calculus."
-- May 30, 2015


In his wacky system, JG cannot even prove that 2+2=4. It seems unlikely he would have anything worthwhile to say about mathematics. On the contrary, it seems he is deliberately trying to mislead and confuse any newcomers here.

Dan

Download my DC Proof 2.0 software at http://www.dcproof.com
Visit my Math Blog at http://www.dcproof.wordpress.com
John Gabriel
2015-06-14 05:24:16 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-equal-one-772.html#post40616
The objects I use, that is, lim (n->oo) [L_n(m), U_n(m)] are *exactly* D. Cuts. The poor idiot Dedekind could not describe them as precisely as I did.
Moron academics hate this proof because it exposes their stupidity.
Definition of D. Cut: It is a partition of the rational numbers into two non-empty sets A and B, such that all elements of A are less than all elements of B, and A contains no greatest element.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dedekind_cut

A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty subsets S_1 and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less than those of S_2 and such that S_1 has no greatest member.

http://mathworld.wolfram.com/DedekindCut.html

The definition I use encapsulates these facts to prove that NO real number can be represented this way.
David C. Ullrich
2015-06-14 15:22:58 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-equal-
one-772.html#post40616
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
The objects I use, that is, lim (n->oo) [L_n(m), U_n(m)] are
*exactly* D. Cuts. The poor idiot Dedekind could not describe them as
precisely as I did.
Moron academics hate this proof because it exposes their stupidity.
Definition of D. Cut: It is a partition of the rational numbers into two
non-empty sets A and B, such that all elements of A are less than all
elements of B, and A contains no greatest element.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dedekind_cut
A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty subsets S_1
and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less than those of S_2 and such
that S_1 has no greatest member.
Now tell us the definition of "partition of the rational numbers".
Post by John Gabriel
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/DedekindCut.html
The definition I use encapsulates these facts to prove that NO real
number can be represented this way.
John Gabriel
2015-06-14 17:41:11 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-equal-
one-772.html#post40616
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
The objects I use, that is, lim (n->oo) [L_n(m), U_n(m)] are
*exactly* D. Cuts. The poor idiot Dedekind could not describe them as
precisely as I did.
Moron academics hate this proof because it exposes their stupidity.
Definition of D. Cut: It is a partition of the rational numbers into two
non-empty sets A and B, such that all elements of A are less than all
elements of B, and A contains no greatest element.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dedekind_cut
A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty subsets S_1
and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less than those of S_2 and such
that S_1 has no greatest member.
Now tell us the definition of "partition of the rational numbers".
Look in the previous paragraph. It tells you there. Eyes rolling. Tsk, tsk.
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/DedekindCut.html
The definition I use encapsulates these facts to prove that NO real
number can be represented this way.
David C. Ullrich
2015-06-14 18:24:24 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-equal-
one-772.html#post40616
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
The objects I use, that is, lim (n->oo) [L_n(m), U_n(m)] are
*exactly* D. Cuts. The poor idiot Dedekind could not describe them
as precisely as I did.
Moron academics hate this proof because it exposes their stupidity.
Definition of D. Cut: It is a partition of the rational numbers into
two non-empty sets A and B, such that all elements of A are less than
all elements of B, and A contains no greatest element.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dedekind_cut
A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty subsets S_1
and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less than those of S_2 and
such that S_1 has no greatest member.
Now tell us the definition of "partition of the rational numbers".
Look in the previous paragraph. It tells you there.
What? There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a
Dedekind cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc.

I mean this is really stupid. Say you tell me

Definition. A zebra is a horse with stripes.

and then I ask you what a horse is - would you say I
should look at the previous paragraph?

You have a _truly_ remarkable inability to get things straight.
Post by John Gabriel
Eyes rolling. Tsk,
tsk.
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/DedekindCut.html
The definition I use encapsulates these facts to prove that NO real
number can be represented this way.
John Gabriel
2015-06-15 00:34:21 UTC
Permalink
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-equal-
one-772.html#post40616
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
The objects I use, that is, lim (n->oo) [L_n(m), U_n(m)] are
*exactly* D. Cuts. The poor idiot Dedekind could not describe them
as precisely as I did.
Moron academics hate this proof because it exposes their stupidity.
Definition of D. Cut: It is a partition of the rational numbers into
two non-empty sets A and B, such that all elements of A are less than
all elements of B, and A contains no greatest element.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dedekind_cut
A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty subsets S_1
and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less than those of S_2 and
such that S_1 has no greatest member.
Now tell us the definition of "partition of the rational numbers".
Look in the previous paragraph. It tells you there.
What? There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a
Dedekind cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc.
Gawd. You are an unbelievably stupid fucking moron.

dullrich: "What is the definition of a set partition"?
Gabriel: " A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty subsets S_1 and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less than those of S_2 and such that S_1 has no greatest member."
dullrich: "There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a
Dedekind cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc."

Wow. All I can say is WOW!!!
Post by David C. Ullrich
I mean this is really stupid. Say you tell me
Definition. A zebra is a horse with stripes.
and then I ask you what a horse is - would you say I
should look at the previous paragraph?
You have a _truly_ remarkable inability to get things straight.
Post by John Gabriel
Eyes rolling. Tsk,
tsk.
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/DedekindCut.html
The definition I use encapsulates these facts to prove that NO real
number can be represented this way.
Port563
2015-06-15 00:55:11 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
What? There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a
Dedekind cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc.
Gawd. You are an unbelievably stupid fucking moron.
dullrich: "What is the definition of a set partition"?
Gabriel: " A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty
subsets S_1 and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less than those
of S_2 and such that S_1 has no greatest member."
dullrich: "There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a
Dedekind cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc."
Wow. All I can say is WOW!!!
Presumably, you only find this "WOW"able because you abolished if and only
if definitions?

But the rest of us did not.

There lies your error.
John Gabriel
2015-06-15 06:07:52 UTC
Permalink
"John Gabriel"
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
What? There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a
Dedekind cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc.
Gawd. You are an unbelievably stupid fucking moron.
dullrich: "What is the definition of a set partition"?
Gabriel: " A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty
subsets S_1 and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less than those
of S_2 and such that S_1 has no greatest member."
dullrich: "There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a
Dedekind cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc."
Wow. All I can say is WOW!!!
Presumably, you only find this "WOW"able because you abolished if and only
if definitions?
But the rest of us did not.
There lies your error.
You want me to educate you? Solution: Provide a real name and means of verification. Otherwise go back to your vomit.
David C. Ullrich
2015-06-15 15:57:10 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-equal-
one-772.html#post40616
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
The objects I use, that is, lim (n->oo) [L_n(m), U_n(m)] are
*exactly* D. Cuts. The poor idiot Dedekind could not describe
them as precisely as I did.
Moron academics hate this proof because it exposes their stupidity.
Definition of D. Cut: It is a partition of the rational numbers
into two non-empty sets A and B, such that all elements of A are
less than all elements of B, and A contains no greatest element.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dedekind_cut
A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty subsets
S_1 and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less than those of
S_2 and such that S_1 has no greatest member.
Now tell us the definition of "partition of the rational numbers".
Look in the previous paragraph. It tells you there.
What? There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a Dedekind
cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc.
Gawd. You are an unbelievably stupid fucking moron.
dullrich: "What is the definition of a set partition"?
Gabriel: " A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty
subsets S_1 and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less than those of
S_2 and such that S_1 has no greatest member."
dullrich: "There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a
Dedekind cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc."
Wow. All I can say is WOW!!!
That's not a definition of "partition". You can tell because
it doesn't say "a set partition is...". It's the definition of
"Dedekind cut".

Do you really think "A horse with stripes" is a definition of "horse"?
Post by John Gabriel
I mean this is really stupid. Say you tell me
Definition. A zebra is a horse with stripes.
and then I ask you what a horse is - would you say I should look at the
previous paragraph?
You have a _truly_ remarkable inability to get things straight.
Post by John Gabriel
Eyes rolling. Tsk,
tsk.
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/DedekindCut.html
The definition I use encapsulates these facts to prove that NO
real number can be represented this way.
Port563
2015-06-15 16:42:31 UTC
Permalink
(Baboon scat swept up and flushed)
Post by David C. Ullrich
Do you really think "A horse with stripes" is a definition of "horse"?
David, you haven't overlooked Gabriel allegedly abolished IFF definitions,
have you?

Circular-, self- and other non- definitions are his norm.

He sees definitions as something which can be used to trap him and reveal
the fact that he has no mathematical knowledge, sense, ability, potential or
intuition. It's his animal cunning.**.

There is no way to explain the pointlessness of circularities to someone
with an IQ of 75-80. Simply no way.

Best to leave him to your more boisterous students to play with. I've
introduced a few of mine to him, and they've had fun with him over the past
year.

** TBF, if our bio-robotics faculty get to know of him, they'll seek an
import permit notwithstanding his No Fly status. They might well be curious
in a dissection, to discover how something with a brain so malfunctioned can
still metabolize and defecate. The pons and cerebellum must be semi-intact,
through the cerebrum is evidently metastaized beyond any hope of repair. I
don't want this, as the temptation to visit him when he's all strapped down
in the lab, and do to him what he has promised to do to us sane ones, might
arise.

(-;
John Gabriel
2015-06-15 17:16:43 UTC
Permalink
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-equal-
one-772.html#post40616
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
The objects I use, that is, lim (n->oo) [L_n(m), U_n(m)] are
*exactly* D. Cuts. The poor idiot Dedekind could not describe
them as precisely as I did.
Moron academics hate this proof because it exposes their stupidity.
Definition of D. Cut: It is a partition of the rational numbers
into two non-empty sets A and B, such that all elements of A are
less than all elements of B, and A contains no greatest element.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dedekind_cut
A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty subsets
S_1 and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less than those of
S_2 and such that S_1 has no greatest member.
Now tell us the definition of "partition of the rational numbers".
Look in the previous paragraph. It tells you there.
What? There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a Dedekind
cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc.
Gawd. You are an unbelievably stupid fucking moron.
dullrich: "What is the definition of a set partition"?
Gabriel: " A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty
subsets S_1 and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less than those of
S_2 and such that S_1 has no greatest member."
dullrich: "There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a
Dedekind cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc."
Wow. All I can say is WOW!!!
That's not a definition of "partition". You can tell because
it doesn't say "a set partition is...". It's the definition of
"Dedekind cut".
I am not discussing the definition of partition, but the definition of a D. Cut. Any old student of basic set theory knows what is a set partition. It's appalling that you don't after 30 years of teaching.
Post by David C. Ullrich
Do you really think "A horse with stripes" is a definition of "horse"?
Post by John Gabriel
I mean this is really stupid. Say you tell me
Definition. A zebra is a horse with stripes.
and then I ask you what a horse is - would you say I should look at the
previous paragraph?
You have a _truly_ remarkable inability to get things straight.
Post by John Gabriel
Eyes rolling. Tsk,
tsk.
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/DedekindCut.html
The definition I use encapsulates these facts to prove that NO
real number can be represented this way.
David C. Ullrich
2015-06-15 21:33:29 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-equal-
one-772.html#post40616
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
The objects I use, that is, lim (n->oo) [L_n(m), U_n(m)] are
*exactly* D. Cuts. The poor idiot Dedekind could not describe
them as precisely as I did.
Moron academics hate this proof because it exposes their stupidity.
Definition of D. Cut: It is a partition of the rational numbers
into two non-empty sets A and B, such that all elements of A
are less than all elements of B, and A contains no greatest
element.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dedekind_cut
A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty
subsets S_1 and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less than
those of S_2 and such that S_1 has no greatest member.
Now tell us the definition of "partition of the rational numbers".
Look in the previous paragraph. It tells you there.
What? There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a Dedekind
cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc.
Gawd. You are an unbelievably stupid fucking moron.
dullrich: "What is the definition of a set partition"?
Gabriel: " A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty
subsets S_1 and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less than those
of S_2 and such that S_1 has no greatest member."
dullrich: "There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a
Dedekind cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc."
Wow. All I can say is WOW!!!
That's not a definition of "partition". You can tell because it doesn't
say "a set partition is...". It's the definition of "Dedekind cut".
I am not discussing the definition of partition, but the definition of a
D. Cut. Any old student of basic set theory knows what is a set
partition. It's appalling that you don't after 30 years of teaching.
You do not understand the definition of "Dedekind cut". The non-Dedekind
cuts that you say are Dedekind cuts satisfy the version of the definition
of Dedekind cut _except_ that they are not partitions. Hence one's
conjecture that you don't know what the word partition means.

There was also that time a week or so ago when we were talking
about this and you insisted that there was no requirement that
every rational be included. _Showing_ that you don't know what
a partition of the rationals is.

If you do understand all this then why do you say things are
Dedekind cuts that are obviously not?
Post by John Gabriel
Do you really think "A horse with stripes" is a definition of "horse"?
Post by John Gabriel
I mean this is really stupid. Say you tell me
Definition. A zebra is a horse with stripes.
and then I ask you what a horse is - would you say I should look at
the previous paragraph?
You have a _truly_ remarkable inability to get things straight.
Post by John Gabriel
Eyes rolling. Tsk,
tsk.
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/DedekindCut.html
The definition I use encapsulates these facts to prove that NO
real number can be represented this way.
John Gabriel
2015-06-16 17:57:03 UTC
Permalink
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-equal-
one-772.html#post40616
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
The objects I use, that is, lim (n->oo) [L_n(m), U_n(m)] are
*exactly* D. Cuts. The poor idiot Dedekind could not describe
them as precisely as I did.
Moron academics hate this proof because it exposes their stupidity.
Definition of D. Cut: It is a partition of the rational numbers
into two non-empty sets A and B, such that all elements of A
are less than all elements of B, and A contains no greatest
element.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dedekind_cut
A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty
subsets S_1 and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less than
those of S_2 and such that S_1 has no greatest member.
Now tell us the definition of "partition of the rational numbers".
Look in the previous paragraph. It tells you there.
What? There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a Dedekind
cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc.
Gawd. You are an unbelievably stupid fucking moron.
dullrich: "What is the definition of a set partition"?
Gabriel: " A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty
subsets S_1 and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less than those
of S_2 and such that S_1 has no greatest member."
dullrich: "There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a
Dedekind cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc."
Wow. All I can say is WOW!!!
That's not a definition of "partition". You can tell because it doesn't
say "a set partition is...". It's the definition of "Dedekind cut".
I am not discussing the definition of partition, but the definition of a
D. Cut. Any old student of basic set theory knows what is a set
partition. It's appalling that you don't after 30 years of teaching.
You do not understand the definition of "Dedekind cut".
It's *YOU* who do not understand.
Post by David C. Ullrich
The non-Dedekind cuts that you say are Dedekind cuts satisfy the version of the definition of Dedekind cut _except_ that they are not partitions.
They are *exactly* set partitions.
Post by David C. Ullrich
Hence one's conjecture that you don't know what the word partition means.
You know what to do with your conjectures, don't you? Chuckle.
Post by David C. Ullrich
There was also that time a week or so ago when we were talking
about this and you insisted that there was no requirement that
every rational be included.
Wrong. You misunderstood. I said that there is no loss of generality if one treats the cut (-oo,pi) U [pi, oo) as [p3,pi) U [pi, 4].

<snip: irrelevant nonsense as usual>
David C. Ullrich
2015-06-16 18:55:29 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
On Sunday, 14 June 2015 17:23:04 UTC+2, David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-
equal-
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
one-772.html#post40616
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
The objects I use, that is, lim (n->oo) [L_n(m), U_n(m)]
are *exactly* D. Cuts. The poor idiot Dedekind could not
describe them as precisely as I did.
Moron academics hate this proof because it exposes their
stupidity.
Definition of D. Cut: It is a partition of the rational
numbers into two non-empty sets A and B, such that all
elements of A are less than all elements of B, and A
contains no greatest element.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dedekind_cut
A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty
subsets S_1 and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less
than those of S_2 and such that S_1 has no greatest member.
Now tell us the definition of "partition of the rational numbers".
Look in the previous paragraph. It tells you there.
What? There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a
Dedekind cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc.
Gawd. You are an unbelievably stupid fucking moron.
dullrich: "What is the definition of a set partition"?
Gabriel: " A set partition of the rational numbers into two
nonempty subsets S_1 and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less
than those of S_2 and such that S_1 has no greatest member."
dullrich: "There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a
Dedekind cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc."
Wow. All I can say is WOW!!!
That's not a definition of "partition". You can tell because it
doesn't say "a set partition is...". It's the definition of
"Dedekind cut".
I am not discussing the definition of partition, but the definition
of a D. Cut. Any old student of basic set theory knows what is a set
partition. It's appalling that you don't after 30 years of teaching.
You do not understand the definition of "Dedekind cut".
It's *YOU* who do not understand.
Post by David C. Ullrich
The non-Dedekind cuts that you say are Dedekind cuts satisfy the
version of the definition of Dedekind cut _except_ that they are not
partitions.
They are *exactly* set partitions.
Sorry. They are not partitions _of the rationals_, which is part of the
definition of "Dedekind cut".
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Hence one's conjecture that you don't know what the word partition means.
You know what to do with your conjectures, don't you? Chuckle.
Post by David C. Ullrich
There was also that time a week or so ago when we were talking about
this and you insisted that there was no requirement that every rational
be included.
Wrong. You misunderstood. I said that there is no loss of generality if
one treats the cut (-oo,pi) U [pi, oo) as [p3,pi) U [pi, 4].
<snip: irrelevant nonsense as usual>
John Gabriel
2015-06-17 06:57:32 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
On Sunday, 14 June 2015 17:23:04 UTC+2, David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-
equal-
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
one-772.html#post40616
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
The objects I use, that is, lim (n->oo) [L_n(m), U_n(m)]
are *exactly* D. Cuts. The poor idiot Dedekind could not
describe them as precisely as I did.
Moron academics hate this proof because it exposes their
stupidity.
Definition of D. Cut: It is a partition of the rational
numbers into two non-empty sets A and B, such that all
elements of A are less than all elements of B, and A
contains no greatest element.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dedekind_cut
A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty
subsets S_1 and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less
than those of S_2 and such that S_1 has no greatest member.
Now tell us the definition of "partition of the rational numbers".
Look in the previous paragraph. It tells you there.
What? There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a
Dedekind cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc.
Gawd. You are an unbelievably stupid fucking moron.
dullrich: "What is the definition of a set partition"?
Gabriel: " A set partition of the rational numbers into two
nonempty subsets S_1 and S_2 such that all members of S_1 are less
than those of S_2 and such that S_1 has no greatest member."
dullrich: "There's no definition of "partition" there. It says a
Dedekind cut is a partition of the rationals such that etc."
Wow. All I can say is WOW!!!
That's not a definition of "partition". You can tell because it
doesn't say "a set partition is...". It's the definition of
"Dedekind cut".
I am not discussing the definition of partition, but the definition
of a D. Cut. Any old student of basic set theory knows what is a set
partition. It's appalling that you don't after 30 years of teaching.
You do not understand the definition of "Dedekind cut".
It's *YOU* who do not understand.
Post by David C. Ullrich
The non-Dedekind cuts that you say are Dedekind cuts satisfy the
version of the definition of Dedekind cut _except_ that they are not
partitions.
They are *exactly* set partitions.
Sorry. They are not partitions _of the rationals_, which is part of the
definition of "Dedekind cut".
As I said, there is no loss of generality if one treats the cut (-oo,pi) U [pi, oo) as [3,pi) U [pi, 4].

Both are set partitions _of the rationals_. Chuckle.
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Hence one's conjecture that you don't know what the word partition means.
You know what to do with your conjectures, don't you? Chuckle.
Post by David C. Ullrich
There was also that time a week or so ago when we were talking about
this and you insisted that there was no requirement that every rational
be included.
Wrong. You misunderstood. I said that there is no loss of generality if
one treats the cut (-oo,pi) U [pi, oo) as [p3,pi) U [pi, 4].
<snip: irrelevant nonsense as usual>
Jim Burns
2015-06-17 12:11:44 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
The non-Dedekind cuts that you say are Dedekind cuts satisfy the
version of the definition of Dedekind cut _except_ that they are not
partitions.
They are *exactly* set partitions.
Sorry. They are not partitions _of the rationals_, which is part of the
definition of "Dedekind cut".
As I said, there is no loss of generality if one treats the
cut (-oo,pi) U [pi, oo) as [3,pi) U [pi, 4].
Both are set partitions _of the rationals_. Chuckle.
Sure, you _said_ , and you said, and you still say -- but
you don't _prove_ . Prove it.

Give the definition of a partition of the rationals, then
show that { [3,pi) , [pi, 4] } satisfies that definition.
How hard could that be?



Also, how hard could it be to answer yes or no to these question:

(i) Do the rational numbers exist?

(ii) Do _non-trivial_ , _edgeless upward_ , _gapless downward_ sets of
rationals exist?
"non-trivial" A: A ~= Q and A ~= {}
"edgeless upward" A: For all x e A, there is some y e A: x < y
"gapless downward" A: For all x e A, for all y < x: y e A

(iii) If a set of things that satisfy the real number axioms exists,
do the real numbers exist?

(iv) Does it matter what the things are called that satisfy the
real number axioms? (If it does say how.)
Port563
2015-06-17 12:30:16 UTC
Permalink
Jim, you are dealing with a Grade 2 Net k00k, John Gabriel.

He doesn't know any mathematics. Might as well discuss math with a roach.

He'll never answer a question put to him about math, because he thinks he's
got us fooled so far.

Chuckle.
Post by Jim Burns
How hard could that be?
Easy for man. Hard for roach. (-;

Jim, did you pass on my message within OSU?
Post by Jim Burns
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
The non-Dedekind cuts that you say are Dedekind cuts satisfy the
version of the definition of Dedekind cut _except_ that they are not
partitions.
They are *exactly* set partitions.
Sorry. They are not partitions _of the rationals_, which is part of the
definition of "Dedekind cut".
As I said, there is no loss of generality if one treats the
cut (-oo,pi) U [pi, oo) as [3,pi) U [pi, 4].
Both are set partitions _of the rationals_. Chuckle.
Sure, you _said_ , and you said, and you still say -- but
you don't _prove_ . Prove it.
Give the definition of a partition of the rationals, then
show that { [3,pi) , [pi, 4] } satisfies that definition.
How hard could that be?
(i) Do the rational numbers exist?
(ii) Do _non-trivial_ , _edgeless upward_ , _gapless downward_ sets of
rationals exist?
"non-trivial" A: A ~= Q and A ~= {}
"edgeless upward" A: For all x e A, there is some y e A: x < y
"gapless downward" A: For all x e A, for all y < x: y e A
(iii) If a set of things that satisfy the real number axioms exists,
do the real numbers exist?
(iv) Does it matter what the things are called that satisfy the
real number axioms? (If it does say how.)
John Gabriel
2015-06-17 12:46:26 UTC
Permalink
On Wednesday, 17 June 2015 14:30:52 UTC+2, Port563 wrote:
<snip: monkey noise>

Shhhhhhh monkey! Here, have a banana. Good boy.
John Gabriel
2015-06-17 12:45:26 UTC
Permalink
Post by Jim Burns
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
The non-Dedekind cuts that you say are Dedekind cuts satisfy the
version of the definition of Dedekind cut _except_ that they are not
partitions.
They are *exactly* set partitions.
Sorry. They are not partitions _of the rationals_, which is part of the
definition of "Dedekind cut".
As I said, there is no loss of generality if one treats the
cut (-oo,pi) U [pi, oo) as [3,pi) U [pi, 4].
Both are set partitions _of the rationals_. Chuckle.
Sure, you _said_ , and you said, and you still say -- but
you don't _prove_ . Prove it.
The proof is fairly simple. Apply the definition. If you think it is not a Cut, then tell us why you think so.
Post by Jim Burns
Give the definition of a partition of the rationals, then
show that { [3,pi) , [pi, 4] } satisfies that definition.
How hard could that be?
(i) Do the rational numbers exist?
(ii) Do _non-trivial_ , _edgeless upward_ , _gapless downward_ sets of
rationals exist?
"non-trivial" A: A ~= Q and A ~= {}
"edgeless upward" A: For all x e A, there is some y e A: x < y
"gapless downward" A: For all x e A, for all y < x: y e A
(iii) If a set of things that satisfy the real number axioms exists,
do the real numbers exist?
(iv) Does it matter what the things are called that satisfy the
real number axioms? (If it does say how.)
David C. Ullrich
2015-06-17 14:54:00 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
The non-Dedekind cuts that you say are Dedekind cuts satisfy the
version of the definition of Dedekind cut _except_ that they are
not partitions.
They are *exactly* set partitions.
Sorry. They are not partitions _of the rationals_, which is part of
the definition of "Dedekind cut".
As I said, there is no loss of generality if one treats the cut
(-oo,pi) U [pi, oo) as [3,pi) U [pi, 4].
Both are set partitions _of the rationals_. Chuckle.
Sure, you _said_ , and you said, and you still say -- but you don't
_prove_ . Prove it.
The proof is fairly simple. Apply the definition. If you think it is not
a Cut, then tell us why you think so.
That's been done over and over - you simply refuse to accept the
definition of "partition of the rationals".

Saying that S1 and S2 form a partition of the rationals means exactly
two things, by definition: S1 and S2 are disjoint sets of rationals,
and every rational is in S1 or in S2.
Post by John Gabriel
Give the definition of a partition of the rationals, then show that {
[3,pi) , [pi, 4] } satisfies that definition.
How hard could that be?
(i) Do the rational numbers exist?
(ii) Do _non-trivial_ , _edgeless upward_ , _gapless downward_ sets of
rationals exist?
"non-trivial" A: A ~= Q and A ~= {}
"edgeless upward" A: For all x e A, there is some y e A: x < y
"gapless downward" A: For all x e A, for all y < x: y e A
(iii) If a set of things that satisfy the real number axioms exists,
do the real numbers exist?
(iv) Does it matter what the things are called that satisfy the
real number axioms? (If it does say how.)
a***@gmail.com
2015-06-17 17:40:50 UTC
Permalink
thanks; I was wondering about that, since I am just a geometer
Post by David C. Ullrich
Saying that S1 and S2 form a partition of the rationals means exactly
two things, by definition: S1 and S2 are disjoint sets of rationals,
and every rational is in S1 or in S2.
Give the definition of a partition of the rationals, then show that {
[3,pi) , [pi, 4] } satisfies that definition.
How hard could that be?
(i) Do the rational numbers exist?
(ii) Do _non-trivial_ , _edgeless upward_ , _gapless downward_ sets of
rationals exist?
"non-trivial" A: A ~= Q and A ~= {}
"edgeless upward" A: For all x e A, there is some y e A: x < y
"gapless downward" A: For all x e A, for all y < x: y e A
(iii) If a set of things that satisfy the real number axioms exists,
do the real numbers exist?
(iv) Does it matter what the things are called that satisfy the
real number axioms? (If it does say how.)
John Gabriel
2015-06-17 19:14:45 UTC
Permalink
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
The non-Dedekind cuts that you say are Dedekind cuts satisfy the
version of the definition of Dedekind cut _except_ that they are
not partitions.
They are *exactly* set partitions.
Sorry. They are not partitions _of the rationals_, which is part of
the definition of "Dedekind cut".
As I said, there is no loss of generality if one treats the cut
(-oo,pi) U [pi, oo) as [3,pi) U [pi, 4].
Both are set partitions _of the rationals_. Chuckle.
Sure, you _said_ , and you said, and you still say -- but you don't
_prove_ . Prove it.
The proof is fairly simple. Apply the definition. If you think it is not
a Cut, then tell us why you think so.
That's been done over and over - you simply refuse to accept the
definition of "partition of the rationals".
Nonsense. The set of rationals containing the number is partitioned. Nothing is said about ALL the rational numbers because that's just too absurd. Infinity is a junk concept.

I used the definition without any loss of generality. The important part is not that a given number is in one of the sets, but rather that if it is less than the number represented by the cut, then it will be in the lower set, otherwise the higher.

As usual, you are an asshole who is only interested in misrepresenting and misleading others.
Post by David C. Ullrich
Saying that S1 and S2 form a partition of the rationals means exactly
two things, by definition: S1 and S2 are disjoint sets of rationals,
and every rational is in S1 or in S2.
Post by John Gabriel
Give the definition of a partition of the rationals, then show that {
[3,pi) , [pi, 4] } satisfies that definition.
How hard could that be?
(i) Do the rational numbers exist?
(ii) Do _non-trivial_ , _edgeless upward_ , _gapless downward_ sets of
rationals exist?
"non-trivial" A: A ~= Q and A ~= {}
"edgeless upward" A: For all x e A, there is some y e A: x < y
"gapless downward" A: For all x e A, for all y < x: y e A
(iii) If a set of things that satisfy the real number axioms exists,
do the real numbers exist?
(iv) Does it matter what the things are called that satisfy the
real number axioms? (If it does say how.)
David C. Ullrich
2015-06-17 21:37:53 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
The non-Dedekind cuts that you say are Dedekind cuts satisfy
the version of the definition of Dedekind cut _except_ that
they are not partitions.
They are *exactly* set partitions.
Sorry. They are not partitions _of the rationals_, which is part
of the definition of "Dedekind cut".
As I said, there is no loss of generality if one treats the cut
(-oo,pi) U [pi, oo) as [3,pi) U [pi, 4].
Both are set partitions _of the rationals_. Chuckle.
Sure, you _said_ , and you said, and you still say -- but you don't
_prove_ . Prove it.
The proof is fairly simple. Apply the definition. If you think it is
not a Cut, then tell us why you think so.
That's been done over and over - you simply refuse to accept the
definition of "partition of the rationals".
Nonsense. The set of rationals containing the number is partitioned.
Nothing is said about ALL the rational numbers because that's just too
absurd. Infinity is a junk concept.
This is hilarious. You insist yes you do know the definition.
I finally decide to make things easy on you and point out
exactly where you're violating the definition, and you simply
say the definition doesn't say what it says, and explain why.

Look. The fact that you, for your own insane reasons, disapprove
of the definition doesn't change the fact that your supposed
Dedekind cuts are not Dedekind cuts, because they do not satisfy
the definition.
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Saying that S1 and S2 form a partition of the rationals means exactly
two things, by definition: S1 and S2 are disjoint sets of rationals,
and every rational is in S1 or in S2.
I used the definition without any loss of generality. The important part
is not that a given number is in one of the sets, but rather that if it
is less than the number represented by the cut, then it will be in the
lower set, otherwise the higher.
As usual, you are an asshole who is only interested in misrepresenting
and misleading others.
Have you noticed that nobody seems to agree with you on any of this?
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Give the definition of a partition of the rationals, then show that
{ [3,pi) , [pi, 4] } satisfies that definition.
How hard could that be?
(i) Do the rational numbers exist?
(ii) Do _non-trivial_ , _edgeless upward_ , _gapless downward_ sets
of rationals exist?
"non-trivial" A: A ~= Q and A ~= {}
"edgeless upward" A: For all x e A, there is some y e A: x <
y "gapless downward" A: For all x e A, for all y < x: y e A
(iii) If a set of things that satisfy the real number axioms exists,
do the real numbers exist?
(iv) Does it matter what the things are called that satisfy the
real number axioms? (If it does say how.)
John Gabriel
2015-06-18 07:56:56 UTC
Permalink
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
The non-Dedekind cuts that you say are Dedekind cuts satisfy
the version of the definition of Dedekind cut _except_ that
they are not partitions.
They are *exactly* set partitions.
Sorry. They are not partitions _of the rationals_, which is part
of the definition of "Dedekind cut".
As I said, there is no loss of generality if one treats the cut
(-oo,pi) U [pi, oo) as [3,pi) U [pi, 4].
Both are set partitions _of the rationals_. Chuckle.
Sure, you _said_ , and you said, and you still say -- but you don't
_prove_ . Prove it.
The proof is fairly simple. Apply the definition. If you think it is
not a Cut, then tell us why you think so.
That's been done over and over - you simply refuse to accept the
definition of "partition of the rationals".
Nonsense. The set of rationals containing the number is partitioned.
Nothing is said about ALL the rational numbers because that's just too
absurd. Infinity is a junk concept.
This is hilarious. You insist yes you do know the definition.
I finally decide to make things easy on you and point out
exactly where you're violating the definition, and you simply
say the definition doesn't say what it says, and explain why.
Look. The fact that you, for your own insane reasons, disapprove
of the definition doesn't change the fact that your supposed
Dedekind cuts are not Dedekind cuts, because they do not satisfy
the definition.
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Saying that S1 and S2 form a partition of the rationals means exactly
two things, by definition: S1 and S2 are disjoint sets of rationals,
and every rational is in S1 or in S2.
I used the definition without any loss of generality. The important part
is not that a given number is in one of the sets, but rather that if it
is less than the number represented by the cut, then it will be in the
lower set, otherwise the higher.
As usual, you are an asshole who is only interested in misrepresenting
and misleading others.
Have you noticed that nobody seems to agree with you on any of this?
Have you noticed that I am not particularly worried? Chuckle.
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Post by John Gabriel
Give the definition of a partition of the rationals, then show that
{ [3,pi) , [pi, 4] } satisfies that definition.
How hard could that be?
(i) Do the rational numbers exist?
(ii) Do _non-trivial_ , _edgeless upward_ , _gapless downward_ sets
of rationals exist?
"non-trivial" A: A ~= Q and A ~= {}
"edgeless upward" A: For all x e A, there is some y e A: x <
y "gapless downward" A: For all x e A, for all y < x: y e A
(iii) If a set of things that satisfy the real number axioms exists,
do the real numbers exist?
(iv) Does it matter what the things are called that satisfy the
real number axioms? (If it does say how.)
YBM
2015-06-18 11:47:48 UTC
Permalink
...
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Have you noticed that nobody seems to agree with you on any of this?
Have you noticed that I am not particularly worried? Chuckle.
This is because you're a psychopath, John.
Port563
2015-06-18 12:53:19 UTC
Permalink
Post by YBM
...
Post by John Gabriel
Post by David C. Ullrich
Have you noticed that nobody seems to agree with you on any of this?
Have you noticed that I am not particularly worried? Chuckle.
This is because you're a psychopath, John.
!

Psychopath, n.
-----
"A person afflicted with a personality disorder characterized by a tendency
to commit antisocial and sometimes violent acts and a failure to feel guilt
for such acts."
----
"A person with an antisocial personality disorder, especially one manifested
in perverted, criminal, or amoral behavior."
(medical use)
----

Would I be correct in assuming you've taken a professional opinion on this,
Yves?

As to:

"violent acts"...

Given the nature of his threats in sci.math against my person, and the
persons of others, would you say, Yves, the immediate involvement of my (or,
our) local police would be wise?

A devout person like me inevitably believes that heaven helps those who help
themselves.

I have shown my Dobie several (old) pictures, but I'm unconvinced it works.
She really needs a scent.



My source gives the following origin for the word "psychopath", from the
"The Medium and Daybreak," Jan. 16, 1885. I quote:

(quote)
The Daily Telegraph had, the other day, a long article commenting on a
Russian woman who had murdered a little girl. A Dr. Balinsky prevailed upon
the jury to give a verdict of acquittal, because she was a "psychopath." The
Daily Telegraph regards this term as a new coinage, but it has been long
known amongst Spiritualists, yet in another sense.
(endofquote)

Disturbing reading...
Justin Thyme
2015-06-18 14:35:57 UTC
Permalink
Post by Port563
Psychopath, n.
-----
"A person afflicted with a personality disorder characterized by a tendency
to commit antisocial and sometimes violent acts and a failure to feel guilt
for such acts."
----
"A person with an antisocial personality disorder, especially one manifested
in perverted, criminal, or amoral behavior."
(medical use)
----
I find the medical use slightly interesting. What counts as perverted?
In the past, homosexuality was deemed a perversion; now, if anyone
thinks that, they would be advised to keep their opinion to themselves.
As for amoral behavior, most anything one does (outside the mental and
autonomic spheres) is behavior, e.g. me typing now. Me typing now is
neither moral nor immoral, it is amoral. So two of the three disjuncts:
perverted, criminal, or amoral behavior, can be dismissed as of no
significance.

I don't know if there is a medical term for people like you, but
childish and foolish are the terms which come to my mind.
--
Shall we only threaten and be angry for an hour?
When the storm is ended shall we find
How softly but how swiftly they have sidled back to power
By the favour and contrivance of their kind?

From /Mesopotamia/ by Rudyard Kipling
John Gabriel
2015-06-18 14:53:49 UTC
Permalink
Post by Justin Thyme
Post by Port563
Psychopath, n.
-----
"A person afflicted with a personality disorder characterized by a tendency
to commit antisocial and sometimes violent acts and a failure to feel guilt
for such acts."
----
"A person with an antisocial personality disorder, especially one manifested
in perverted, criminal, or amoral behavior."
(medical use)
----
I find the medical use slightly interesting. What counts as perverted?
In the past, homosexuality was deemed a perversion; now, if anyone
thinks that, they would be advised to keep their opinion to themselves.
As for amoral behavior, most anything one does (outside the mental and
autonomic spheres) is behavior, e.g. me typing now. Me typing now is
perverted, criminal, or amoral behavior, can be dismissed as of no
significance.
I don't know if there is a medical term for people like you, but
childish and foolish are the terms which come to my mind.
You have to bear in mind that medical terms are made up by psychologists and psychotherapists who generally are not that intelligent. Simply group some behavioural attributes together and stick a label on them, that becomes a new mental illness with its own ICD.

Our dark-skinned creature has manic projective disorder (MPD) of which the following symptoms are very common:

1. Extremely low IQ
2. Projection of own thoughts onto others without critical thinking or realising actual facts
3. Being jealous, insecure and of a fragile personality
4. Fearful of others they do not understand
5. Has strong dislike for more intelligent people
6. Makes assumptions on the spur of the moment, disregards circumstance, evidence and reality
7. Accuses others of any and every mental illness without any evidence whatsoever

I suppose I could add more, but these traits are common in our local resident monkey. Troll Dan Christensen and YBM have several of those traits also.

Best way to silence this moron is to ignore it completely.
Post by Justin Thyme
--
Shall we only threaten and be angry for an hour?
When the storm is ended shall we find
How softly but how swiftly they have sidled back to power
By the favour and contrivance of their kind?
From /Mesopotamia/ by Rudyard Kipling
a***@gmail.com
2015-06-19 03:50:08 UTC
Permalink
I also saw you cite a desire for "civil dyscussion, and
that is rather odd, from you ... even if
you knew of "neccesity & sufficeincy in proof, or
even one of them at a time
Post by John Gabriel
6. Makes assumptions on the spur of the moment, disregards circumstance, evidence and reality
7. Accuses others of any and every mental illness without any evidence whatsoever
I suppose I could add more, but these traits are common in our local resident monkey. Troll Dan Christensen and YBM have several of those traits also.
Best way to silence this moron is to ignore it completely.
Post by Justin Thyme
--
Shall we only threaten and be angry for an hour?
When the storm is ended shall we find
How softly but how swiftly they have sidled back to power
By the favour and contrivance of their kind?
From /Mesopotamia/ by Rudyard Kipling
Port563
2015-06-18 15:07:12 UTC
Permalink
Post by Port563
Psychopath, n.
-----
"A person afflicted with a personality disorder characterized by a tendency
to commit antisocial and sometimes violent acts and a failure to feel guilt
for such acts."
----
"A person with an antisocial personality disorder, especially one manifested
in perverted, criminal, or amoral behavior."
(medical use)
----
I find the medical use slightly interesting. What counts as perverted? In
the past, homosexuality was deemed a perversion; now, if anyone thinks
that, they would be advised to keep their opinion to themselves. As for
amoral behavior, most anything one does (outside the mental and autonomic
spheres) is behavior, e.g. me typing now. Me typing now is neither moral
nor immoral, it is amoral. So two of the three disjuncts: perverted,
criminal, or amoral behavior, can be dismissed as of no significance
Convey your objections to dictionary.com. I am merely the intermediary.

The conclusion as to who is the psychopath comes from "YBM" ***@nooos.fr.
I am merely the intermediary.

Now, you have permission to go and play with the Cape Baboon. He will take
great comfort in what he will see is support for his misconduct.

Or, it you have time, get your main PC and laptop better synch'd?

Justin Thyme User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; WOW64; rv:36.0)
Gecko/20100101 Firefox/36.0 SeaMonkey/2.33.1

Jan Burse User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; WOW64; rv:20.0)
Gecko/20100101 Firefox/20.0 SeaMonkey/2.17.1

(-:
Jim Burns
2015-06-14 21:47:31 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-equal-one-772.html#post40616
The objects I use, that is, lim (n->oo) [L_n(m), U_n(m)] are *exactly* D. Cuts.
The poor idiot Dedekind could not describe them as precisely as I did.
Moron academics hate this proof because it exposes their stupidity.
Definition of D. Cut: It is a partition of the rational numbers into two non-empty
sets A and B, such that all elements of A are less than all elements of B, and A
contains no greatest element.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dedekind_cut
A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty subsets S_1 and S_2
such that all members of S_1 are less than those of S_2 and such that S_1 has
no greatest member.
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/DedekindCut.html
The definition I use encapsulates these facts to prove that NO real number
can be represented this way.
You do not seem to have managed to correctly use the definitions
you quote. You are most likely blissfully unaware of your failure
(Dunning-Kruger effect) and you think that chanting some phrase
is all you need to do. ("By the Awesome Power of Dedekind Cuts,
I refute thee! I refute thee! I refute thee! Begone, thou foul
theorem!")

This could certainly be the reason that you think that "eliminating"
irrational numbers only to replace them with "incommensurable
magnitudes" which behave in every way like irrational numbers
has some sort of effect. On The Astral Plane, perhaps?

Talking to you about Dedekind cuts would be pointless.

Instead, I intend to talk to you about flying rainbow sparkle-ponies.
It's very likely to have just as little effect on you (Dunning-Kruger),
but there is the prospect of you chanting "By the Awesome Power
of Flying Rainbow Sparkle-Ponies ... "

Flying rainbow sparkle-ponies -- as I define them here -- have
all of the properties that are claimed for real numbers, and they
can be constructed from rational numbers using a bit of set theory.

Since you apparently are able to believe in the rational numbers,
and the only axiom that the reals have in addition to those of
the rationals is the least upper bound property, I will focus on
demonstrating the least upper bound property for the set of all
flying rainbow sparkle-ponies.

A _flying rainbow sparkle-pony_ is defined as a subset A of the
rational numbers Q which is not {} or Q, which is _closed downward_ ,
and which _does not contain a maximum_ .

The subset relation '=c' forms a _linear order_ on the set
of all flying rainbow sparkle-ponies.

For every bounded, non-empty set of flying rainbow sparkle-ponies /F/
there exists a least upper bound. That least upper bound is U /F/

---

Again, in more detail:

A _flying rainbow sparkle-pony_ is defined as a subset A of the rational
numbers Q which is not {} or Q, which is _closed downward_ , and which
_does not contain a maximum_ .

These are some examples of flying rainbow sparkle-ponies:

[-1] = {x| x e Q and x < -1 }

[355/113] = {x| x e Q and x < 355/113 }

[sqrt(2)] = {x | x e Q and ( x^2 < 2 or x < 0 ) }

"Closed downward": For all x e A, if y < x then y e A.
A is closed downward.

"Does not contain a maximum": For all x e A, there exists
some y e A such that y > x.

The subset relation '=c' forms a _linear order_ on the set
of all flying rainbow sparkle-ponies.

"Linear order":
Let A, B, and C be flying rainbow sparkle-ponies. Then
(i) ( A =c B & B =c C ) -> ( A =c C )
(ii) ( A =c B & B =c A ) -> ( A = B )
(iii) A =c B or B =c A
Proof of (iii):
Either (1) there is x such that x e A and x ~e B,
or (2) there isn't.

(1) Assume x e A and x ~e B.
For all y e B, y < x,
because, B is closed downward, so if there were
y e B and y > x, then x e B. But x ~e B.
For all y < x, y e A,
because A is closed downward.
Therefore, For all y e B, y e A.
B =c A.

(2) Assume there is no x such that x e A and x ~e B.
For all x e A, x e B.
A =c B.

-- B =c A or A =c B

Let /F/ be a _bounded_ , non-empty set of flying rainbow
sparkle-ponies.

"Bounded": There is some flying rainbow sparkle=pony B
such that for all A e /F/ , A =c B.

The union of /F/, U /F/ , is itself a flying rainbow
sparkle-pony.

-- U /F/ is closed downward.
Let x e U /F/ . Then x e A for some flying rainbow
sparkle-pony A e /F/ . For all y < x, y e A
and thus y e U /F/ .

-- U /F/ contains no maximum.
Let x e U /F/ . Then x e A for some flying rainbow
sparkle-pony A e /F/ . There exists some y > x, y e A
and thus y > x, y e U /F/ .

-- U /F/ is not empty
/F/ is not empty of flying rainbow sparkle-ponies,
and no flying rainbow sparkle-pony is empty.

-- U /F/ is not Q.
/F/ is bounded, so there is some flying rainbow
sparkle-pony B such that, for all A e /F/ , A =c B.
B is not Q, so there is some x ~e B.
Because for all A, A =c B, x ~e A and thus x ~e U /F/
And U /F/ is not Q

U /F/ is an upper bound for /F/

-- For all A e /F/ , A =c U /F/ .

Let B be any upper bound of /F/ . Then U /F/ =c B.

-- For all x e U /F/ , there is some A e /F/ such that
x e A. But A =c B, so x e B.
For all x e U /F/ , x e B.
Thus, U /F/ =c B.

For every bounded, non-empty set of flying rainbow sparkle-ponies /F/
there exists a least upper bound. That least upper bound is U /F/
a***@gmail.com
2015-06-14 22:30:51 UTC
Permalink
Hm, thing that made may say
Post by Jim Burns
For every bounded, non-empty set of flying rainbow sparkle-ponies /F/
there exists a least upper bound. That least upper bound is U /F/
John Gabriel
2015-06-15 00:35:29 UTC
Permalink
Post by Jim Burns
Post by John Gabriel
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-equal-one-772.html#post40616
The objects I use, that is, lim (n->oo) [L_n(m), U_n(m)] are *exactly* D. Cuts.
The poor idiot Dedekind could not describe them as precisely as I did.
Moron academics hate this proof because it exposes their stupidity.
Definition of D. Cut: It is a partition of the rational numbers into two non-empty
sets A and B, such that all elements of A are less than all elements of B, and A
contains no greatest element.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dedekind_cut
A set partition of the rational numbers into two nonempty subsets S_1 and S_2
such that all members of S_1 are less than those of S_2 and such that S_1 has
no greatest member.
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/DedekindCut.html
The definition I use encapsulates these facts to prove that NO real number
can be represented this way.
You do not seem to have managed to correctly use the definitions
you quote. You are most likely blissfully unaware of your failure
(Dunning-Kruger effect) and you think that chanting some phrase
is all you need to do. ("By the Awesome Power of Dedekind Cuts,
I refute thee! I refute thee! I refute thee! Begone, thou foul
theorem!")
This could certainly be the reason that you think that "eliminating"
irrational numbers only to replace them with "incommensurable
magnitudes" which behave in every way like irrational numbers
has some sort of effect. On The Astral Plane, perhaps?
Talking to you about Dedekind cuts would be pointless.
Instead, I intend to talk to you about flying rainbow sparkle-ponies.
It's very likely to have just as little effect on you (Dunning-Kruger),
but there is the prospect of you chanting "By the Awesome Power
of Flying Rainbow Sparkle-Ponies ... "
Flying rainbow sparkle-ponies -- as I define them here -- have
all of the properties that are claimed for real numbers, and they
can be constructed from rational numbers using a bit of set theory.
Since you apparently are able to believe in the rational numbers,
and the only axiom that the reals have in addition to those of
the rationals is the least upper bound property, I will focus on
demonstrating the least upper bound property for the set of all
flying rainbow sparkle-ponies.
A _flying rainbow sparkle-pony_ is defined as a subset A of the
rational numbers Q which is not {} or Q, which is _closed downward_ ,
and which _does not contain a maximum_ .
The subset relation '=c' forms a _linear order_ on the set
of all flying rainbow sparkle-ponies.
For every bounded, non-empty set of flying rainbow sparkle-ponies /F/
there exists a least upper bound. That least upper bound is U /F/
---
A _flying rainbow sparkle-pony_ is defined as a subset A of the rational
numbers Q which is not {} or Q, which is _closed downward_ , and which
_does not contain a maximum_ .
[-1] = {x| x e Q and x < -1 }
[355/113] = {x| x e Q and x < 355/113 }
[sqrt(2)] = {x | x e Q and ( x^2 < 2 or x < 0 ) }
"Closed downward": For all x e A, if y < x then y e A.
A is closed downward.
"Does not contain a maximum": For all x e A, there exists
some y e A such that y > x.
The subset relation '=c' forms a _linear order_ on the set
of all flying rainbow sparkle-ponies.
Let A, B, and C be flying rainbow sparkle-ponies. Then
(i) ( A =c B & B =c C ) -> ( A =c C )
(ii) ( A =c B & B =c A ) -> ( A = B )
(iii) A =c B or B =c A
Either (1) there is x such that x e A and x ~e B,
or (2) there isn't.
(1) Assume x e A and x ~e B.
For all y e B, y < x,
because, B is closed downward, so if there were
y e B and y > x, then x e B. But x ~e B.
For all y < x, y e A,
because A is closed downward.
Therefore, For all y e B, y e A.
B =c A.
(2) Assume there is no x such that x e A and x ~e B.
For all x e A, x e B.
A =c B.
-- B =c A or A =c B
Let /F/ be a _bounded_ , non-empty set of flying rainbow
sparkle-ponies.
"Bounded": There is some flying rainbow sparkle=pony B
such that for all A e /F/ , A =c B.
The union of /F/, U /F/ , is itself a flying rainbow
sparkle-pony.
-- U /F/ is closed downward.
Let x e U /F/ . Then x e A for some flying rainbow
sparkle-pony A e /F/ . For all y < x, y e A
and thus y e U /F/ .
-- U /F/ contains no maximum.
Let x e U /F/ . Then x e A for some flying rainbow
sparkle-pony A e /F/ . There exists some y > x, y e A
and thus y > x, y e U /F/ .
-- U /F/ is not empty
/F/ is not empty of flying rainbow sparkle-ponies,
and no flying rainbow sparkle-pony is empty.
-- U /F/ is not Q.
/F/ is bounded, so there is some flying rainbow
sparkle-pony B such that, for all A e /F/ , A =c B.
B is not Q, so there is some x ~e B.
Because for all A, A =c B, x ~e A and thus x ~e U /F/
And U /F/ is not Q
U /F/ is an upper bound for /F/
-- For all A e /F/ , A =c U /F/ .
Let B be any upper bound of /F/ . Then U /F/ =c B.
-- For all x e U /F/ , there is some A e /F/ such that
x e A. But A =c B, so x e B.
For all x e U /F/ , x e B.
Thus, U /F/ =c B.
For every bounded, non-empty set of flying rainbow sparkle-ponies /F/
there exists a least upper bound. That least upper bound is U /F/
Before you try to engage me in a discussion, you ought to learn some math first. Parroting what your lecturers tell you only makes you look stupid.
Jim Burns
2015-06-15 12:54:24 UTC
Permalink
[...]
Post by John Gabriel
Post by Jim Burns
Post by John Gabriel
The definition I use encapsulates these facts to prove that
NO real number can be represented this way.
You do not seem to have managed to correctly use the definitions
you quote. You are most likely blissfully unaware of your failure
(Dunning-Kruger effect) and you think that chanting some phrase
is all you need to do. ("By the Awesome Power of Dedekind Cuts,
I refute thee! I refute thee! I refute thee! Begone, thou foul
theorem!")
This could certainly be the reason that you think that "eliminating"
irrational numbers only to replace them with "incommensurable
magnitudes" which behave in every way like irrational numbers
has some sort of effect. On The Astral Plane, perhaps?
Talking to you about Dedekind cuts would be pointless.
Instead, I intend to talk to you about flying rainbow sparkle-ponies.
It's very likely to have just as little effect on you (Dunning-Kruger),
but there is the prospect of you chanting "By the Awesome Power
of Flying Rainbow Sparkle-Ponies ... "
Flying rainbow sparkle-ponies -- as I define them here -- have
all of the properties that are claimed for real numbers, and they
can be constructed from rational numbers using a bit of set theory.
Since you apparently are able to believe in the rational numbers,
and the only axiom that the reals have in addition to those of
the rationals is the least upper bound property, I will focus on
demonstrating the least upper bound property for the set of all
flying rainbow sparkle-ponies.
A _flying rainbow sparkle-pony_ is defined as a subset A of the
rational numbers Q which is not {} or Q, which is _closed downward_ ,
and which _does not contain a maximum_ .
The subset relation '=c' forms a _linear order_ on the set
of all flying rainbow sparkle-ponies.
For every bounded, non-empty set of flying rainbow sparkle-ponies /F/
there exists a least upper bound. That least upper bound is U /F/
---
[...]
Post by John Gabriel
Before you try to engage me in a discussion,
you ought to learns some math first.
Parroting what your lecturers tell you only makes you look stupid.
You remind me of another poster for whom I spent a lot of time trying
to address their message, somewhere underneath the obvious errors,
the less obvious errors, and the important errors. Eventually, I
realized that this other poster _had no message_ , that all their
frenetic typing was a bluff, and they had no idea what mathematicians,
even mathematics students, actually did. (One can hold the charitable
hope that this other poster _didn't know_ that they didn't know
(Dunning-Kruger).)

I think that their bluff drew as much attention as it did because
it is human nature to assume that something that looks like a
message has a message inside somewhere, no matter how wrong
a message it is.

What changed my mind about this other poster is that they would
divert attention _away_ from any discussion of the math, at every
opportunity. I note that this is exactly what you are doing
here: No math in that response. I note that this is what you
_mostly_ do. (If Port563 is reading, he should consider whether
trading insults with you is _exactly what you want him to do_
since it relieves you of the need to make math-like noises.)

If you would like to look as though you are not bluffing,
if you are _able_ to look as though you are not bluffing,
I suggest that you perform some feat of mathematics,
_uncontroversial_ (so that questions of revolution vs. error
do not apply), the more sophisticated the better, of course,
but _something_ .

Of course, if you are bluffing, this option is not open to you.
John Gabriel
2015-06-15 13:03:53 UTC
Permalink
[...]
Post by John Gabriel
Post by Jim Burns
Post by John Gabriel
The definition I use encapsulates these facts to prove that
NO real number can be represented this way.
You do not seem to have managed to correctly use the definitions
you quote. You are most likely blissfully unaware of your failure
(Dunning-Kruger effect) and you think that chanting some phrase
is all you need to do. ("By the Awesome Power of Dedekind Cuts,
I refute thee! I refute thee! I refute thee! Begone, thou foul
theorem!")
This could certainly be the reason that you think that "eliminating"
irrational numbers only to replace them with "incommensurable
magnitudes" which behave in every way like irrational numbers
has some sort of effect. On The Astral Plane, perhaps?
Talking to you about Dedekind cuts would be pointless.
Instead, I intend to talk to you about flying rainbow sparkle-ponies.
It's very likely to have just as little effect on you (Dunning-Kruger),
but there is the prospect of you chanting "By the Awesome Power
of Flying Rainbow Sparkle-Ponies ... "
Flying rainbow sparkle-ponies -- as I define them here -- have
all of the properties that are claimed for real numbers, and they
can be constructed from rational numbers using a bit of set theory.
Since you apparently are able to believe in the rational numbers,
and the only axiom that the reals have in addition to those of
the rationals is the least upper bound property, I will focus on
demonstrating the least upper bound property for the set of all
flying rainbow sparkle-ponies.
A _flying rainbow sparkle-pony_ is defined as a subset A of the
rational numbers Q which is not {} or Q, which is _closed downward_ ,
and which _does not contain a maximum_ .
The subset relation '=c' forms a _linear order_ on the set
of all flying rainbow sparkle-ponies.
For every bounded, non-empty set of flying rainbow sparkle-ponies /F/
there exists a least upper bound. That least upper bound is U /F/
---
[...]
Post by John Gabriel
Before you try to engage me in a discussion,
you ought to learns some math first.
Parroting what your lecturers tell you only makes you look stupid.
...even mathematics students, actually did. (One can hold the charitable
hope that this other poster _didn't know_ that they didn't know
(Dunning-Kruger).)
You shouldn't talk about the Dunning-Kruger effect because you don't understand it and have no idea where and how this insignificant result was obtained. Firstly, it does not apply to most people because those sampled were all psychology students. Secondly, it is a biased study. Lastly, saying derogatory things like that will definitely not make anyone take you seriously.
I note that this is exactly what you are doing here: No math in that response.
Huh? Respond to insults or irrelevant nonsense, the likes of which you posted in a previous comment? Are you delusional much?
I note that this is what you _mostly_ do. (If Port563...
I am going to nail this monkey. It will happen when it least expects it. I have already reported this utter filth to several organisations. I have nothing but contempt for this bastard. No civil discussion can continue while this pig is on this forum. It needs to go.
If you would like to look as though you are not bluffing,
As I said, your opinion is worthless to me. Remind yourself every time you expect a response. I respond only to those I think a response in terms of mathematics is worthwhile for others.
Jim Burns
2015-06-15 14:19:37 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
Post by Jim Burns
Post by John Gabriel
Post by Jim Burns
A _flying rainbow sparkle-pony_ is defined as a subset A of the
rational numbers Q which is not {} or Q, which is _closed downward_ ,
and which _does not contain a maximum_ .
The subset relation '=c' forms a _linear order_ on the set
of all flying rainbow sparkle-ponies.
For every bounded, non-empty set of flying rainbow sparkle-ponies /F/
there exists a least upper bound. That least upper bound is U /F/
---
[...]
Post by John Gabriel
Before you try to engage me in a discussion,
you ought to learns some math first.
Parroting what your lecturers tell you only makes you look stupid.
<unsnip>
Post by John Gabriel
Post by Jim Burns
What changed my mind about this other poster is that they would
divert attention _away_ from any discussion of the math, at every
opportunity. I note that this is exactly what you are doing
here: No math in that response. I note that this is what you
_mostly_ do. (If Port563 is reading, he should consider whether
trading insults with you is _exactly what you want him to do_
since it relieves you of the need to make math-like noises.)
</unsnip>
Post by John Gabriel
Post by Jim Burns
No math in that response.
Huh? Respond to insults or irrelevant nonsense, the likes of which
you posted in a previous comment? Are you delusional much?
If you think that proving that the set of flying rainbow sparkle-ponies
has the least upper bound property is irrelevant to constructing
the real numbers, then that says all that needs to be said
about your opinion that the real numbers do not exist.

If you think it matters at all that I call these objects of study
flying rainbow sparkle-ponies instead of something impressive
sounding ("incommensurable magnitudes" springs to mind, for some
reason), then that says all that needs to be said about _any_
opinion you have about _any_ mathematics.

FYI, the details of my argument are still there, upthread.
Any time you want to show that you own or can borrow a clue,
you can (if you can) address that argument.
John Gabriel
2015-06-15 17:14:05 UTC
Permalink
Post by Jim Burns
FYI, the details of my argument are still there, upthread.
Any time you want to show that you own or can borrow a clue,
you can (if you can) address that argument.
As I have told you, it's a load of irrelevant crap. You don't know what you are talking about. Hint: You are clueless.
Jim Burns
2015-06-15 18:20:10 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
Post by Jim Burns
FYI, the details of my argument are still there, upthread.
Any time you want to show that you own or can borrow a clue,
you can (if you can) address that argument.
As I have told you, it's a load of irrelevant crap.
You don't know what you are talking about. Hint: You are clueless.
I am showing you how to construct the real numbers from
things that you already agree exist.

You don't deny that rationals exist, do you?

(I don't think you do. I only want to be able to scratch that
possible objection off the list.)

You don't deny that sets of rationals exist (i) which are
closed downward, (ii) which do not contain a maximum, and
(iii) which are not the empty set or the whole set of rationals,
do you?

(i) [all x][all y](( x e A & y < x ) -> ( x e A ))
(ii) [all x](( x e A ) -> [exists y]( y e A & x < y ))

The real numbers are things that satisfy the real number
axioms. Proving that things exist which satisfy the real
number axioms _is_ proving that the real numbers exist.
You don't disagree with that, do you?
Port563
2015-06-15 15:06:41 UTC
Permalink
(Baboon-excrement excised)
Post by Jim Burns
You remind me of another poster for whom I spent a lot of time trying
to address their message, somewhere underneath the obvious errors,
the less obvious errors, and the important errors. Eventually, I
realized that this other poster _had no message_ , that all their
frenetic typing was a bluff, and they had no idea what mathematicians,
even mathematics students, actually did. (One can hold the charitable
hope that this other poster _didn't know_ that they didn't know
(Dunning-Kruger).)
I think that their bluff drew as much attention as it did because
it is human nature to assume that something that looks like a
message has a message inside somewhere, no matter how wrong
a message it is.
You mean, the Cape Town ghetto's baboon boy actually thinks there's
a chance he can fool good mathematicians that he isn't 100% Bull
Shyte?

Yes, he may be that stupid. It is evident to all of us what we have
here is the below the national average IQ for South Africa. Look it
up.

I guess it gives him street-cred in the ghetto, that he has all these
university types "in a fuss".

Chuckle. The only fuss we're in is how to get him efficiently
processed by the local authorities over there.
Post by Jim Burns
What changed my mind about this other poster is that they would
divert attention _away_ from any discussion of the math, at every
opportunity. I note that this is exactly what you are doing
here: No math in that response. I note that this is what you
_mostly_ do. (If Port563 is reading, he should consider whether
trading insults with you is _exactly what you want him to do_
since it relieves you of the need to make math-like noises.)
Any newcomer who reads any of the sane posters' material realizes
that we _know_ Gabriel's knowledge of math is barely grade school
level. That plus a bit of google, random insults hurled in and we
have "The New Calculus".
Post by Jim Burns
If you would like to look as though you are not bluffing,
if you are _able_ to look as though you are not bluffing,
I suggest that you perform some feat of mathematics,
_uncontroversial_ (so that questions of revolution vs. error
do not apply), the more sophisticated the better, of course,
but _something_ .
Of course, if you are bluffing, this option is not open to you.
You know we know he's bluffing, which is why he never participates
in a bona-fide math thread. He couldn't. His attempts to answer
anything but trivial material would be hilarious. While he's nuts,
he's not quite so nuts as to think he'd do other than make a
bigger laughingstock of himself than he already has.

However, some of us are quite unpleasant too, and the Cape Town
baboon is going to find his actions will have severe
repercussions.

Oh, and regards to the No. 3 in math @ OSU. Tell him Dev remembers.
(-:
Ross A. Finlayson
2015-06-15 02:00:06 UTC
Permalink
Thanks Burns that's quite
impressive and amusing.
John Gabriel
2015-06-15 06:08:27 UTC
Permalink
Post by Ross A. Finlayson
Thanks Burns that's quite
impressive and amusing.
Amusing yes. Impressive? I don't think so.
Jim Burns
2015-06-15 12:58:22 UTC
Permalink
Post by Ross A. Finlayson
Thanks Burns that's quite
impressive and amusing.
Thank you. You will have noted that it's all valid,
whether or not it's amusing.
Quadibloc
2015-06-16 14:21:41 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-equal-one-772.html#post40616
The square root of 2 divided by 2 is supposed to be 0.707106781186547... and so
if you consider the numbers with denominators of 7, 4/7 is less than it, but
5/7 is more than it.

Since that is unambiguous, I don't see how finding R sub 7 as an exercise
convinces me that a split of the rational numbers between those less than it
and greater than it is not unique.

Of course, there are many _subsets_ of the rational numbers, and these subsets
can be split that way. But a split of *all* the rational numbers - or all the
rational numbers in any given interval - would be unique unless there's some
rational number that could be either greater than the square root of two over
two (or some other irrational) or less than it, as you pleased.

John Savard
John Gabriel
2015-06-16 17:59:50 UTC
Permalink
Post by Quadibloc
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-equal-one-772.html#post40616
The square root of 2 divided by 2 is supposed to be 0.707106781186547... and so
if you consider the numbers with denominators of 7, 4/7 is less than it, but
5/7 is more than it.
Since that is unambiguous, I don't see how finding R sub 7 as an exercise
convinces me that a split of the rational numbers between those less than it
and greater than it is not unique.
You missed the *point*. The idea is that you can find infinitely many R sub m, but if you formalise it so that each cut is unique, you end up with a contradiction.

Perhaps if you understood the comment properly, you might not be writing these nonsense comments of yours?
Post by Quadibloc
Of course, there are many _subsets_ of the rational numbers, and these subsets
can be split that way. But a split of *all* the rational numbers - or all the
rational numbers in any given interval - would be unique unless there's some
rational number that could be either greater than the square root of two over
two (or some other irrational) or less than it, as you pleased.
John Savard
Quadibloc
2015-06-16 14:22:03 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-equal-one-772.html#post40616
The square root of 2 divided by 2 is supposed to be 0.707106781186547... and so
if you consider the numbers with denominators of 7, 4/7 is less than it, but
5/7 is more than it.

Since that is unambiguous, I don't see how finding R sub 7 as an exercise
convinces me that a split of the rational numbers between those less than it
and greater than it is not unique.

Of course, there are many _subsets_ of the rational numbers, and these subsets
can be split that way. But a split of *all* the rational numbers - or all the
rational numbers in any given interval - would be unique unless there's some
rational number that could be either greater than the square root of two over
two (or some other irrational) or less than it, as you pleased.

John Savard
John Gabriel
2015-06-17 19:28:35 UTC
Permalink
Post by John Gabriel
http://www.spacetimeandtheuniverse.com/math/4507-0-999-equal-one-772.html#post40616
The objects I use, that is, lim (n->oo) [L_n(m), U_n(m)] are *exactly* D. Cuts. The poor idiot Dedekind could not describe them as precisely as I did.
Moron academics hate this proof because it exposes their stupidity.
What's truly hilarious is how academic morons (dullrich especially) are trying to discredit my proof because I claim that for all intents and purposes, the cuts

(-oo,pi) U [pi, oo) and [3,pi) U [pi, 4]

are the same. What's important is that if a number is less than pi, then it will be either in the lower set [3,pi) or it will be in (-oo,3] since [3,pi) has 3 as the greatest lower bound. Similarly, if a number is greater than pi, then it will either be in the upper set [pi, 4] or it will be in [4, oo).

So the definition I use IS exactly the same as that of Dedekind's original definition.
a***@gmail.com
2015-06-18 03:56:29 UTC
Permalink
I like it, although three used to be pi
Post by John Gabriel
(-oo,pi) U [pi, oo) and [3,pi) U [pi, 4]
are the same. What's important is that if a number is less than pi, then it will be either in the lower set [3,pi) or it will be in (-oo,3] since [3,pi) has 3 as the greatest lower bound. Similarly, if a number is greater than pi, then it will either be in the upper set [pi, 4] or it will be in [4, oo).
So the definition I use IS exactly the same as that of Dedekind's original definition.
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