Discussion:
What John Gabriel misses and doesn't understand: a novella
(too old to reply)
Markus Klyver
2019-10-26 01:43:42 UTC
Permalink
I've followed John Gabriel quite a while now, as I find dumb/shitty/cranky math and physics funny. As I know how rude and completely unwilling John Gabriel is to learn anything new, this isn't a response to him.

I felt, though, that some points has to me made about his (quite elementary) errors on undergrad introductory real analysis:

1. The derivative f' of a real function f is the limit of (f(x+h)-f(x))/h as h→0, given the limit exists. Now, Gabriel claims this is ill-defined because generally limits are very hard to calculate. In fact, there is no systematic way to find a general limit.

This doesn't mean that the limit is ill-defined. I could define x to be the 657566556787686578987965:th prime number, without knowing what x is. I know that a such prime number exists, hence x is well-defined. Similarly for limits, given that the limit exists, it's well-defined. In fact, the topological limit in (real) metric spaces is unique, so we can talk about *the* limit.

There is no requirement on actually being able to *compute* something you've defined in order for it to be well-defined: an other example are integrals. Integrals are generally impossible to compute, and there is no known method or algoritm to calculate an arbitrary integral. We just know how to do it in very specific cases. Not being able to calculate an integral doesn't mean it's undefined.

(He doesn't understand integrals either, but I'm too lazy to explain why his "definition" is not a definition.)

I'm very surprised that he almost derived the more general definition of the derivative, but stumbled on the the finish line. An equivalent definition for the derivative is that f(x+h)-f(x) = Ah + hρ(h) for some function ρ that will go to 0 whenever h→0. To recover the usual definition, divide both sides with h and let h→0. Then (f(x+h)-f(x))/h = A+ρ(h) → A. This is the natural generalisation and usual definition of partial derivatives.

We can think of A as an linear approximation, since when h is small, then ρ(h) will be to (by the definition of a limit).

For example, for f(x)= x², we would have ρ(h)=h, which of course goes it zero when h does it.

2. Convergence and limits in metric spaces are things Gabriel repeatably misunderstands. When we define convergence, we do that in a space. What that means is that we already have a space, and try to formalise what it means for something to converge *in that space*.

This means there could be metric spaces in which Cauchy sequences do not converge, because we require the limit to be in the metric space. An example would be the partial sums of the decimal expansion of sqrt(2) in the rationals. This forms a sequence not converging, because if it did it would have to be sqrt(2). We can decide to view the same sequence via an inclusion mapping ℚ↪ℝ as metric spaces, in which the same sequence does converge.

Decimal expansions, as I mentioned above, are defined as limits. More specifically, they are defined to be the limit of the partial sums. Since the partial sums of a real decimal expansion is Cauchy, they will converge in the real numbers. Metric spaces having this property are called complete.

One motivation for the real numbers is the completeness. Real functions over R also behave nicely, such as obtaining a minimum and maximum on compact sets (w.r.t. the Borel topology generated by open intervals).

Many layman texts go over the details of these properties, which is of course why John Gabriel doesn't understand them. Of course: if Gabriel actually read an undergrad textbook in real analysis, he would understand that these properties are not as "deep" and abstract as he think they are.

3. His "definition" of numbers makes no sense. He starts off with the concept of a point "as an abstract idea of where you are". This seems to imply a very physical definition, and not something mathematicians would find very satisfying. He the gives a vague explanation of travelling between points (already assuming all sorts of things about how the Euclidean space works, and what velocity is). He then defines "lines" and circles as "distances", ignoring the fact that a distance usually is a *number* and not a path.

Finally, when defining a "number", he already assumes what a magnitude is, which is only vaguely defined as "the size or extent" or something. He mentions lengths, masses and volumes, but these are physical objects. So again: we define something in terms of something that depend on the physical nature, which is not a satisfying definition for a mathematician.
He further assumes that these magnitudes exists on their on, but by his own criteria these objects could never be ratified because they simple make no sense. What does it mean to have an abstract magnitude, if you don't realise it in some form of underlying space? Of course, Gabriel doesn't mention the usage of Euclidean space and the implicit axiomatization. The axioms of Euclidean space of course follows as "theorems" if you implicitly assume them.


4. And oh, 3 <--> 5-2 makes no sense since 3 and 5-2 aren't logical statements. A statement can be logically equivalent to an other statement, but it makes no sense to say that a number is logically equivalent to an other number. You can't logically say "5 implies cat". But you can say "if I have 5 cats, I have a cat." This is a logical statement of the form "If x, then y" and it happens to be (always) true.

As John Gabriel might read it, I'll give an other example of something that's always false: "If a have no cat, then I have two cats". This statement is formally false, but it still makes logically and formally sense. It's a formal statement which you can evaluate and assign a truth value to. So saying that "x is less or equal to 4" just means that we can check if x satisfies (x strictly less than 4) OR (x=4). This is a logical statement combined made up with two different statements connected with a truth-functional OR. This is the same OR which you encounter in a computer or electronics engineering class. One important difference is, of course, that physical logical gates depend on the physical reality whilst truth functionals are formalised by propositional logic.




So in short: above is my selection of favourite parts of what John Gabriel doesn't understand about elementary mathematics (mostly focused on analysis). I'll be very eager to see if he responds to this. Maybe he'll feature me in one video, it's quite comical to be called an ape by a crank.
Eram semper recta
2019-10-26 11:53:28 UTC
Permalink
Post by Markus Klyver
I've followed John Gabriel quite a while now, as I find dumb/shitty/cranky math and physics funny.
Anyone starting a rant with disparaging comments and libel is never taken seriously. Assertions and opinions are ... well, just that - assertions and opinions. Facts are something different.
Post by Markus Klyver
As I know how rude and completely unwilling John Gabriel is to learn anything new, this isn't a response to him.
Chuckle. Condescension is the first sure sign of insecurity in mainstream academics. It typically goes something like this:

"I've been teaching the derivative for 41 years and so I should know what it means.", Mihalis Lambrou (***@math.uoc.gr)

The first thing the idiot Lambrou does is dismiss the fact that

[f(x+h)-f(x)]/h = f'(x)+Q(x,h) where Q(x,h) is some expression in h and/or x.

The problem: The above statement is a FACT. It is not up for debate.
Klyver has learned good English, so one must try to rearrange the order of those words before the nonsense can even begin to make sense.
Post by Markus Klyver
1. The derivative f' of a real function f is the limit of (f(x+h)-f(x))/h as h→0, given the limit exists.
This is FALSE as I have *proved* over and over again.

f'(x) = [f(x+h)-f(x)]/h - Q(x,h)

NEVER produces the derivative unless you do something really stupid such as discard Q(x,h), but in order to do this in your bogus calculus, you have to set h=0. Your limit hand waving bullshit doesn't cure the problem. It doesn't even address the problem. It's like placing a band-aid on a cut that needs many stitches. Chuckle.

It's like saying: "Look, we know it's nonsense to set h=0, but we'll say that we don't actually do it, even though what we do with limits is EQUIVALENT, because using limits we can show that a **known** derivative exists."
Post by Markus Klyver
Now, Gabriel claims this is ill-defined because generally limits are very hard to calculate.
Swine! I have never claimed any such thing. I understand limits better than you or anyone else on the planet. You fucking moron! I taught limit theory in my math classes and my students excelled at university because they knew how to separate bullshit from fact. At least, try to acquire the virtue of truth, because cranks like you are known to be liars and libelers.
Post by Markus Klyver
In fact, there is no systematic way to find a general limit.
WOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

How long did it take you to admit this, you pathetic, moronic crank?!!!!

I am still not convinced you get what I am saying, because you left out a keyword "valid" and you are misleading in your choice of words. I say:

There is no **valid** systematic way of finding a derivative (not limit).

It doesn't matter what you call your shit theory - it is still shit.
Post by Markus Klyver
This doesn't mean that the limit is ill-defined.
It means EXACTLY that the limit is ill defined.
Post by Markus Klyver
I could define x to be the 657566556787686578987965:th prime number, without knowing what x is.
You could, but reifying x is another story. It is also misleading then to say you don't know what is x because you already one attribute of x, that is, its appearance in the sequence of consecutive prime numbers.
Post by Markus Klyver
I know that a such prime number exists, hence x is well-defined.
No. Because you have not reified x. Reification means producing the prime number.
Post by Markus Klyver
Similarly for limits, given that the limit exists, it's well-defined.
Huh? Limits are not like *prime numbers*, you utter moron. There is no similarity whatsoever.
Post by Markus Klyver
In fact, the topological limit in (real) metric spaces is unique, so we can talk about *the* limit.
There is no connection with your bullshit limit in metric spaces and topology is known to be a bunch of crap with little or no use whatsoever.
I have stated the requirements and a moron like you will abide by my requirements because morons don't get to question subjects beyond their reach:

https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/what-does-mean-concept-well-defined-john-gabriel
Post by Markus Klyver
an other example are integrals. Integrals are generally impossible to compute, and there is no known method or algoritm to calculate an arbitrary integral.
Bullshit. Definite integrals are computed in a well-defined way using the mean value theorem, as a product of two arithmetic means. Of course, if one has been infected with the rot of infinite rectangles and other crap, then it is impossible.
Post by Markus Klyver
We just know how to do it in very specific cases.
Rubbish. Any function f' which has a primitive f can be determined in a finite computation, that is, f(b)-f(a) is the integral.
Post by Markus Klyver
Not being able to calculate an integral doesn't mean it's undefined.
No one said it is undefined, you moron! It may have a limit that is not a number, but some incommensurable magnitude, in which case one use numeric integration and common sense which you so desperately lack.
Post by Markus Klyver
(He doesn't understand integrals either, but I'm too lazy to explain why his "definition" is not a definition.)
Chuckle. I am the first to prove the mean value theorem constructively and this dimwit claims I don't understand integration. LMAO.

https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-mOEooW03iLZG1pNlVIX2RTR0E

The fundamental theorem of calculus is derived in one step from the mean value theorem.
Post by Markus Klyver
I'm very surprised that he almost derived the more general definition of the derivative, but stumbled on the the finish line. An equivalent definition for the derivative is that f(x+h)-f(x) = Ah + hρ(h) for some function ρ that will go to 0 whenever h→0. To recover the usual definition, divide both sides with h and let h→0. Then (f(x+h)-f(x))/h = A+ρ(h) → A. This is the natural generalisation and usual definition of partial derivatives.
This bullshit is all debunked in my free eBook:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1CIul68phzuOe6JZwsCuBuXUR8X-AkgEO/view

<irrelevant drivel in an attempt to prop up theory that has nothing to do with calculus or mathematics>
Post by Markus Klyver
We can think of A as an linear approximation, since when h is small, then ρ(h) will be to (by the definition of a limit).
For example, for f(x)= x², we would have ρ(h)=h, which of course goes it zero when h does it.
2. Convergence and limits in metric spaces are things Gabriel repeatably misunderstands. When we define convergence, we do that in a space. What that means is that we already have a space, and try to formalise what it means for something to converge *in that space*.
This means there could be metric spaces in which Cauchy sequences do not converge, because we require the limit to be in the metric space. An example would be the partial sums of the decimal expansion of sqrt(2) in the rationals. This forms a sequence not converging, because if it did it would have to be sqrt(2). We can decide to view the same sequence via an inclusion mapping ℚ↪ℝ as metric spaces, in which the same sequence does converge.
The chief property of Cauchy sequences is that they ALL converge. I don't give a shit to whether they converge to a rational number or an incommensurable magnitude.

sqrt(2) is NOT a number, but a symbol for an incommensurable magnitude. I guess you first have to learn what it means to be a number before you can understand what this means. It doesn't help memorising metric space theory which you don't understand and which is based off number theory that has been validated in certain aspects.
Post by Markus Klyver
Decimal expansions, as I mentioned above, are defined as limits.
Rubbish. In the mainstream only, they are defined as limits after the ideas of Euler's S = Lim S.
Post by Markus Klyver
More specifically, they are defined to be the limit of the partial sums. Since the partial sums of a real decimal expansion is Cauchy, they will converge in the real numbers.
Nonsense which has all been debunked in my free eBook. There is no valid construction of real number - it's a pipe dream. Neither Dedekind Cuts nor classes of equivalent Cauchy sequences are valid constructions.
Post by Markus Klyver
Metric spaces having this property are called complete.
One motivation for the real numbers is the completeness.
It's quite pathetic how mainstream morons introduce terms such as completeness in order to obfuscate the issue at hand. Fact is, completeness has ZERO to do with the issue and I have PROVED this in my first constructive proof of the mean value theorem.
Post by Markus Klyver
Real functions over R also behave nicely, such as obtaining a minimum and maximum on compact sets (w.r.t. the Borel topology generated by open intervals).
Many layman texts go over the details of these properties, which is of course why John Gabriel doesn't understand them. Of course: if Gabriel actually read an undergrad textbook in real analysis, he would understand that these properties are not as "deep" and abstract as he think they are.
Chuckle.
Post by Markus Klyver
3. His "definition" of numbers makes no sense. He starts off with the concept of a point "as an abstract idea of where you are". This seems to imply a very physical definition, and not something mathematicians would find very satisfying. He the gives a vague explanation of travelling between points (already assuming all sorts of things about how the Euclidean space works, and what velocity is). He then defines "lines" and circles as "distances", ignoring the fact that a distance usually is a *number* and not a path.
Klyver again misrepresenting and lying about everything I've written. Don't believe a word this moron utters. Read my free eBook. I won't even bother further.
Post by Markus Klyver
Finally, when defining a "number", he already assumes what a magnitude is, which is only vaguely defined as "the size or extent" or something. He mentions lengths, masses and volumes, but these are physical objects. So again: we define something in terms of something that depend on the physical nature, which is not a satisfying definition for a mathematician.
He further assumes that these magnitudes exists on their on, but by his own criteria these objects could never be ratified because they simple make no sense. What does it mean to have an abstract magnitude, if you don't realise it in some form of underlying space? Of course, Gabriel doesn't mention the usage of Euclidean space and the implicit axiomatization. The axioms of Euclidean space of course follows as "theorems" if you implicitly assume them.
4. And oh, 3 <--> 5-2 makes no sense since 3 and 5-2 aren't logical statements. A statement can be logically equivalent to an other statement, but it makes no sense to say that a number is logically equivalent to an other number. You can't logically say "5 implies cat". But you can say "if I have 5 cats, I have a cat." This is a logical statement of the form "If x, then y" and it happens to be (always) true.
As John Gabriel might read it, I'll give an other example of something that's always false: "If a have no cat, then I have two cats". This statement is formally false, but it still makes logically and formally sense. It's a formal statement which you can evaluate and assign a truth value to. So saying that "x is less or equal to 4" just means that we can check if x satisfies (x strictly less than 4) OR (x=4). This is a logical statement combined made up with two different statements connected with a truth-functional OR. This is the same OR which you encounter in a computer or electronics engineering class. One important difference is, of course, that physical logical gates depend on the physical reality whilst truth functionals are formalised by propositional logic.
So in short: above is my selection of favourite parts of what John Gabriel doesn't understand about elementary mathematics (mostly focused on analysis). I'll be very eager to see if he responds to this. Maybe he'll feature me in one video, it's quite comical to be called an ape by a crank.
Klyver is an ape and what bothers him the most is that it comes from someone (ME) who is far superior to him intellectually. I have already debunked all Klyver's objections and rants.

This will be the ONLY response Klyver gets on sci.math and it was not for his edification! You can't fix ape. Chuckle.
Dan Christensen
2019-10-26 14:00:41 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Markus Klyver
I've followed John Gabriel quite a while now, as I find dumb/shitty/cranky math and physics funny.
Anyone starting a rant with disparaging comments and libel is never taken seriously. Assertions and opinions are ... well, just that - assertions and opinions. Facts are something different.
Post by Markus Klyver
As I know how rude and completely unwilling John Gabriel is to learn anything new, this isn't a response to him.
The first thing the idiot Lambrou does is dismiss the fact that
[f(x+h)-f(x)]/h = f'(x)+Q(x,h) where Q(x,h) is some expression in h and/or x.
The problem: The above statement is a FACT. It is not up for debate.
I take it your Wacky New Cal-CLUELESS still cannot even handle derivatives of linear functions, or instantaneous rates of change in general. You have actually had to ban them in your goofy system! What a moron.

Wave your hands, obfuscate and hurl abuse all you want, Troll Boy. The indisputable fact is that your goofy system simply does NOT work. It's purpose is apparently NOT to provide insight. Quite the contrary, it seems its purpose, like AP's goofy system, is to promote failure in schools. Your revenge for being kicked out of elementary school?


Even at his advanced age (60+?), John Gabriel is STILL struggling with basic, elementary-school arithmetic. As he has repeatedly posted here:

"1/2 not equal to 2/4"
--October 22, 2017

“1/3 does NOT mean 1 divided by 3 and never has meant that”
-- February 8, 2015

"3 =< 4 is nonsense.”
--October 28, 2017

"Zero is not a number."
-- Jan. 10, 2017

"0 is not required at all in mathematics, just like negative numbers."
-- Jan. 4, 2017

“There is no such thing as an empty set.”
--Oct. 4, 2019

“3 <=> 2 + 1 or 3 <=> 8 - 5, etc, are all propositions” *** NEW ***
--Oct. 22, 2019


No math genius, our JG!


Each of the above idiocies were recently confirmed once again here (July 14, 2019) by JG himself at
https://groups.google.com/forum/#!topic/sci.math/TB8goKMbF3c (also see my reply there)


Interested readers should see: “About the spamming troll John Gabriel in his own words (December 2018)” at https://groups.google.com/forum/#!msg/sci.math/PcpAzX5pDeY/1PDiSlK_BwAJ


Dan

Download my DC Proof 2.0 freeware at http://www.dcproof.com
Visit my Math Blog at http://www.dcproof.wordpress.com
Markus Klyver
2019-10-26 17:08:51 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Markus Klyver
I've followed John Gabriel quite a while now, as I find dumb/shitty/cranky math and physics funny.
Anyone starting a rant with disparaging comments and libel is never taken seriously. Assertions and opinions are ... well, just that - assertions and opinions. Facts are something different.
Post by Markus Klyver
As I know how rude and completely unwilling John Gabriel is to learn anything new, this isn't a response to him.
The first thing the idiot Lambrou does is dismiss the fact that
[f(x+h)-f(x)]/h = f'(x)+Q(x,h) where Q(x,h) is some expression in h and/or x.
The problem: The above statement is a FACT. It is not up for debate.
Klyver has learned good English, so one must try to rearrange the order of those words before the nonsense can even begin to make sense.
Post by Markus Klyver
1. The derivative f' of a real function f is the limit of (f(x+h)-f(x))/h as h→0, given the limit exists.
This is FALSE as I have *proved* over and over again.
f'(x) = [f(x+h)-f(x)]/h - Q(x,h)
NEVER produces the derivative unless you do something really stupid such as discard Q(x,h), but in order to do this in your bogus calculus, you have to set h=0. Your limit hand waving bullshit doesn't cure the problem. It doesn't even address the problem. It's like placing a band-aid on a cut that needs many stitches. Chuckle.
It's like saying: "Look, we know it's nonsense to set h=0, but we'll say that we don't actually do it, even though what we do with limits is EQUIVALENT, because using limits we can show that a **known** derivative exists."
Post by Markus Klyver
Now, Gabriel claims this is ill-defined because generally limits are very hard to calculate.
Swine! I have never claimed any such thing. I understand limits better than you or anyone else on the planet. You fucking moron! I taught limit theory in my math classes and my students excelled at university because they knew how to separate bullshit from fact. At least, try to acquire the virtue of truth, because cranks like you are known to be liars and libelers.
Post by Markus Klyver
In fact, there is no systematic way to find a general limit.
WOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
How long did it take you to admit this, you pathetic, moronic crank?!!!!
There is no **valid** systematic way of finding a derivative (not limit).
It doesn't matter what you call your shit theory - it is still shit.
Post by Markus Klyver
This doesn't mean that the limit is ill-defined.
It means EXACTLY that the limit is ill defined.
Post by Markus Klyver
I could define x to be the 657566556787686578987965:th prime number, without knowing what x is.
You could, but reifying x is another story. It is also misleading then to say you don't know what is x because you already one attribute of x, that is, its appearance in the sequence of consecutive prime numbers.
Post by Markus Klyver
I know that a such prime number exists, hence x is well-defined.
No. Because you have not reified x. Reification means producing the prime number.
Post by Markus Klyver
Similarly for limits, given that the limit exists, it's well-defined.
Huh? Limits are not like *prime numbers*, you utter moron. There is no similarity whatsoever.
Post by Markus Klyver
In fact, the topological limit in (real) metric spaces is unique, so we can talk about *the* limit.
There is no connection with your bullshit limit in metric spaces and topology is known to be a bunch of crap with little or no use whatsoever.
https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/what-does-mean-concept-well-defined-john-gabriel
Post by Markus Klyver
an other example are integrals. Integrals are generally impossible to compute, and there is no known method or algoritm to calculate an arbitrary integral.
Bullshit. Definite integrals are computed in a well-defined way using the mean value theorem, as a product of two arithmetic means. Of course, if one has been infected with the rot of infinite rectangles and other crap, then it is impossible.
Post by Markus Klyver
We just know how to do it in very specific cases.
Rubbish. Any function f' which has a primitive f can be determined in a finite computation, that is, f(b)-f(a) is the integral.
Post by Markus Klyver
Not being able to calculate an integral doesn't mean it's undefined.
No one said it is undefined, you moron! It may have a limit that is not a number, but some incommensurable magnitude, in which case one use numeric integration and common sense which you so desperately lack.
Post by Markus Klyver
(He doesn't understand integrals either, but I'm too lazy to explain why his "definition" is not a definition.)
Chuckle. I am the first to prove the mean value theorem constructively and this dimwit claims I don't understand integration. LMAO.
https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-mOEooW03iLZG1pNlVIX2RTR0E
The fundamental theorem of calculus is derived in one step from the mean value theorem.
Post by Markus Klyver
I'm very surprised that he almost derived the more general definition of the derivative, but stumbled on the the finish line. An equivalent definition for the derivative is that f(x+h)-f(x) = Ah + hρ(h) for some function ρ that will go to 0 whenever h→0. To recover the usual definition, divide both sides with h and let h→0. Then (f(x+h)-f(x))/h = A+ρ(h) → A. This is the natural generalisation and usual definition of partial derivatives.
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1CIul68phzuOe6JZwsCuBuXUR8X-AkgEO/view
<irrelevant drivel in an attempt to prop up theory that has nothing to do with calculus or mathematics>
Post by Markus Klyver
We can think of A as an linear approximation, since when h is small, then ρ(h) will be to (by the definition of a limit).
For example, for f(x)= x², we would have ρ(h)=h, which of course goes it zero when h does it.
2. Convergence and limits in metric spaces are things Gabriel repeatably misunderstands. When we define convergence, we do that in a space. What that means is that we already have a space, and try to formalise what it means for something to converge *in that space*.
This means there could be metric spaces in which Cauchy sequences do not converge, because we require the limit to be in the metric space. An example would be the partial sums of the decimal expansion of sqrt(2) in the rationals. This forms a sequence not converging, because if it did it would have to be sqrt(2). We can decide to view the same sequence via an inclusion mapping ℚ↪ℝ as metric spaces, in which the same sequence does converge.
The chief property of Cauchy sequences is that they ALL converge. I don't give a shit to whether they converge to a rational number or an incommensurable magnitude.
sqrt(2) is NOT a number, but a symbol for an incommensurable magnitude. I guess you first have to learn what it means to be a number before you can understand what this means. It doesn't help memorising metric space theory which you don't understand and which is based off number theory that has been validated in certain aspects.
Post by Markus Klyver
Decimal expansions, as I mentioned above, are defined as limits.
Rubbish. In the mainstream only, they are defined as limits after the ideas of Euler's S = Lim S.
Post by Markus Klyver
More specifically, they are defined to be the limit of the partial sums. Since the partial sums of a real decimal expansion is Cauchy, they will converge in the real numbers.
Nonsense which has all been debunked in my free eBook. There is no valid construction of real number - it's a pipe dream. Neither Dedekind Cuts nor classes of equivalent Cauchy sequences are valid constructions.
Post by Markus Klyver
Metric spaces having this property are called complete.
One motivation for the real numbers is the completeness.
It's quite pathetic how mainstream morons introduce terms such as completeness in order to obfuscate the issue at hand. Fact is, completeness has ZERO to do with the issue and I have PROVED this in my first constructive proof of the mean value theorem.
Post by Markus Klyver
Real functions over R also behave nicely, such as obtaining a minimum and maximum on compact sets (w.r.t. the Borel topology generated by open intervals).
Many layman texts go over the details of these properties, which is of course why John Gabriel doesn't understand them. Of course: if Gabriel actually read an undergrad textbook in real analysis, he would understand that these properties are not as "deep" and abstract as he think they are.
Chuckle.
Post by Markus Klyver
3. His "definition" of numbers makes no sense. He starts off with the concept of a point "as an abstract idea of where you are". This seems to imply a very physical definition, and not something mathematicians would find very satisfying. He the gives a vague explanation of travelling between points (already assuming all sorts of things about how the Euclidean space works, and what velocity is). He then defines "lines" and circles as "distances", ignoring the fact that a distance usually is a *number* and not a path.
Klyver again misrepresenting and lying about everything I've written. Don't believe a word this moron utters. Read my free eBook. I won't even bother further.
Post by Markus Klyver
Finally, when defining a "number", he already assumes what a magnitude is, which is only vaguely defined as "the size or extent" or something. He mentions lengths, masses and volumes, but these are physical objects. So again: we define something in terms of something that depend on the physical nature, which is not a satisfying definition for a mathematician.
He further assumes that these magnitudes exists on their on, but by his own criteria these objects could never be ratified because they simple make no sense. What does it mean to have an abstract magnitude, if you don't realise it in some form of underlying space? Of course, Gabriel doesn't mention the usage of Euclidean space and the implicit axiomatization. The axioms of Euclidean space of course follows as "theorems" if you implicitly assume them.
4. And oh, 3 <--> 5-2 makes no sense since 3 and 5-2 aren't logical statements. A statement can be logically equivalent to an other statement, but it makes no sense to say that a number is logically equivalent to an other number. You can't logically say "5 implies cat". But you can say "if I have 5 cats, I have a cat." This is a logical statement of the form "If x, then y" and it happens to be (always) true.
As John Gabriel might read it, I'll give an other example of something that's always false: "If a have no cat, then I have two cats". This statement is formally false, but it still makes logically and formally sense. It's a formal statement which you can evaluate and assign a truth value to. So saying that "x is less or equal to 4" just means that we can check if x satisfies (x strictly less than 4) OR (x=4). This is a logical statement combined made up with two different statements connected with a truth-functional OR. This is the same OR which you encounter in a computer or electronics engineering class. One important difference is, of course, that physical logical gates depend on the physical reality whilst truth functionals are formalised by propositional logic.
So in short: above is my selection of favourite parts of what John Gabriel doesn't understand about elementary mathematics (mostly focused on analysis). I'll be very eager to see if he responds to this. Maybe he'll feature me in one video, it's quite comical to be called an ape by a crank.
Klyver is an ape and what bothers him the most is that it comes from someone (ME) who is far superior to him intellectually. I have already debunked all Klyver's objections and rants.
This will be the ONLY response Klyver gets on sci.math and it was not for his edification! You can't fix ape. Chuckle.
I love how you didn't adress anything I said, lmao. Gab, stop being this shitty at math fam. <3
Me
2019-10-26 17:17:24 UTC
Permalink
Klyver is an ape and what bothers him the most is that it comes from someone (ME) who [...]
No, it didn't come from ME. It came from YOU, Mr. Rectum (i.e. straight
from the rectum).
Eram semper recta
2019-10-26 18:45:02 UTC
Permalink
Post by Markus Klyver
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Markus Klyver
I've followed John Gabriel quite a while now, as I find dumb/shitty/cranky math and physics funny.
Anyone starting a rant with disparaging comments and libel is never taken seriously. Assertions and opinions are ... well, just that - assertions and opinions. Facts are something different.
Post by Markus Klyver
As I know how rude and completely unwilling John Gabriel is to learn anything new, this isn't a response to him.
The first thing the idiot Lambrou does is dismiss the fact that
[f(x+h)-f(x)]/h = f'(x)+Q(x,h) where Q(x,h) is some expression in h and/or x.
The problem: The above statement is a FACT. It is not up for debate.
Klyver has learned good English, so one must try to rearrange the order of those words before the nonsense can even begin to make sense.
Post by Markus Klyver
1. The derivative f' of a real function f is the limit of (f(x+h)-f(x))/h as h→0, given the limit exists.
This is FALSE as I have *proved* over and over again.
f'(x) = [f(x+h)-f(x)]/h - Q(x,h)
NEVER produces the derivative unless you do something really stupid such as discard Q(x,h), but in order to do this in your bogus calculus, you have to set h=0. Your limit hand waving bullshit doesn't cure the problem. It doesn't even address the problem. It's like placing a band-aid on a cut that needs many stitches. Chuckle.
It's like saying: "Look, we know it's nonsense to set h=0, but we'll say that we don't actually do it, even though what we do with limits is EQUIVALENT, because using limits we can show that a **known** derivative exists."
Post by Markus Klyver
Now, Gabriel claims this is ill-defined because generally limits are very hard to calculate.
Swine! I have never claimed any such thing. I understand limits better than you or anyone else on the planet. You fucking moron! I taught limit theory in my math classes and my students excelled at university because they knew how to separate bullshit from fact. At least, try to acquire the virtue of truth, because cranks like you are known to be liars and libelers.
Post by Markus Klyver
In fact, there is no systematic way to find a general limit.
WOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
How long did it take you to admit this, you pathetic, moronic crank?!!!!
There is no **valid** systematic way of finding a derivative (not limit).
It doesn't matter what you call your shit theory - it is still shit.
Post by Markus Klyver
This doesn't mean that the limit is ill-defined.
It means EXACTLY that the limit is ill defined.
Post by Markus Klyver
I could define x to be the 657566556787686578987965:th prime number, without knowing what x is.
You could, but reifying x is another story. It is also misleading then to say you don't know what is x because you already one attribute of x, that is, its appearance in the sequence of consecutive prime numbers.
Post by Markus Klyver
I know that a such prime number exists, hence x is well-defined.
No. Because you have not reified x. Reification means producing the prime number.
Post by Markus Klyver
Similarly for limits, given that the limit exists, it's well-defined.
Huh? Limits are not like *prime numbers*, you utter moron. There is no similarity whatsoever.
Post by Markus Klyver
In fact, the topological limit in (real) metric spaces is unique, so we can talk about *the* limit.
There is no connection with your bullshit limit in metric spaces and topology is known to be a bunch of crap with little or no use whatsoever.
https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/what-does-mean-concept-well-defined-john-gabriel
Post by Markus Klyver
an other example are integrals. Integrals are generally impossible to compute, and there is no known method or algoritm to calculate an arbitrary integral.
Bullshit. Definite integrals are computed in a well-defined way using the mean value theorem, as a product of two arithmetic means. Of course, if one has been infected with the rot of infinite rectangles and other crap, then it is impossible.
Post by Markus Klyver
We just know how to do it in very specific cases.
Rubbish. Any function f' which has a primitive f can be determined in a finite computation, that is, f(b)-f(a) is the integral.
Post by Markus Klyver
Not being able to calculate an integral doesn't mean it's undefined.
No one said it is undefined, you moron! It may have a limit that is not a number, but some incommensurable magnitude, in which case one use numeric integration and common sense which you so desperately lack.
Post by Markus Klyver
(He doesn't understand integrals either, but I'm too lazy to explain why his "definition" is not a definition.)
Chuckle. I am the first to prove the mean value theorem constructively and this dimwit claims I don't understand integration. LMAO.
https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-mOEooW03iLZG1pNlVIX2RTR0E
The fundamental theorem of calculus is derived in one step from the mean value theorem.
Post by Markus Klyver
I'm very surprised that he almost derived the more general definition of the derivative, but stumbled on the the finish line. An equivalent definition for the derivative is that f(x+h)-f(x) = Ah + hρ(h) for some function ρ that will go to 0 whenever h→0. To recover the usual definition, divide both sides with h and let h→0. Then (f(x+h)-f(x))/h = A+ρ(h) → A. This is the natural generalisation and usual definition of partial derivatives.
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1CIul68phzuOe6JZwsCuBuXUR8X-AkgEO/view
<irrelevant drivel in an attempt to prop up theory that has nothing to do with calculus or mathematics>
Post by Markus Klyver
We can think of A as an linear approximation, since when h is small, then ρ(h) will be to (by the definition of a limit).
For example, for f(x)= x², we would have ρ(h)=h, which of course goes it zero when h does it.
2. Convergence and limits in metric spaces are things Gabriel repeatably misunderstands. When we define convergence, we do that in a space. What that means is that we already have a space, and try to formalise what it means for something to converge *in that space*.
This means there could be metric spaces in which Cauchy sequences do not converge, because we require the limit to be in the metric space. An example would be the partial sums of the decimal expansion of sqrt(2) in the rationals. This forms a sequence not converging, because if it did it would have to be sqrt(2). We can decide to view the same sequence via an inclusion mapping ℚ↪ℝ as metric spaces, in which the same sequence does converge.
The chief property of Cauchy sequences is that they ALL converge. I don't give a shit to whether they converge to a rational number or an incommensurable magnitude.
sqrt(2) is NOT a number, but a symbol for an incommensurable magnitude. I guess you first have to learn what it means to be a number before you can understand what this means. It doesn't help memorising metric space theory which you don't understand and which is based off number theory that has been validated in certain aspects.
Post by Markus Klyver
Decimal expansions, as I mentioned above, are defined as limits.
Rubbish. In the mainstream only, they are defined as limits after the ideas of Euler's S = Lim S.
Post by Markus Klyver
More specifically, they are defined to be the limit of the partial sums. Since the partial sums of a real decimal expansion is Cauchy, they will converge in the real numbers.
Nonsense which has all been debunked in my free eBook. There is no valid construction of real number - it's a pipe dream. Neither Dedekind Cuts nor classes of equivalent Cauchy sequences are valid constructions.
Post by Markus Klyver
Metric spaces having this property are called complete.
One motivation for the real numbers is the completeness.
It's quite pathetic how mainstream morons introduce terms such as completeness in order to obfuscate the issue at hand. Fact is, completeness has ZERO to do with the issue and I have PROVED this in my first constructive proof of the mean value theorem.
Post by Markus Klyver
Real functions over R also behave nicely, such as obtaining a minimum and maximum on compact sets (w.r.t. the Borel topology generated by open intervals).
Many layman texts go over the details of these properties, which is of course why John Gabriel doesn't understand them. Of course: if Gabriel actually read an undergrad textbook in real analysis, he would understand that these properties are not as "deep" and abstract as he think they are.
Chuckle.
Post by Markus Klyver
3. His "definition" of numbers makes no sense. He starts off with the concept of a point "as an abstract idea of where you are". This seems to imply a very physical definition, and not something mathematicians would find very satisfying. He the gives a vague explanation of travelling between points (already assuming all sorts of things about how the Euclidean space works, and what velocity is). He then defines "lines" and circles as "distances", ignoring the fact that a distance usually is a *number* and not a path.
Klyver again misrepresenting and lying about everything I've written. Don't believe a word this moron utters. Read my free eBook. I won't even bother further.
Post by Markus Klyver
Finally, when defining a "number", he already assumes what a magnitude is, which is only vaguely defined as "the size or extent" or something. He mentions lengths, masses and volumes, but these are physical objects. So again: we define something in terms of something that depend on the physical nature, which is not a satisfying definition for a mathematician.
He further assumes that these magnitudes exists on their on, but by his own criteria these objects could never be ratified because they simple make no sense. What does it mean to have an abstract magnitude, if you don't realise it in some form of underlying space? Of course, Gabriel doesn't mention the usage of Euclidean space and the implicit axiomatization. The axioms of Euclidean space of course follows as "theorems" if you implicitly assume them.
4. And oh, 3 <--> 5-2 makes no sense since 3 and 5-2 aren't logical statements. A statement can be logically equivalent to an other statement, but it makes no sense to say that a number is logically equivalent to an other number. You can't logically say "5 implies cat". But you can say "if I have 5 cats, I have a cat." This is a logical statement of the form "If x, then y" and it happens to be (always) true.
As John Gabriel might read it, I'll give an other example of something that's always false: "If a have no cat, then I have two cats". This statement is formally false, but it still makes logically and formally sense. It's a formal statement which you can evaluate and assign a truth value to. So saying that "x is less or equal to 4" just means that we can check if x satisfies (x strictly less than 4) OR (x=4). This is a logical statement combined made up with two different statements connected with a truth-functional OR. This is the same OR which you encounter in a computer or electronics engineering class. One important difference is, of course, that physical logical gates depend on the physical reality whilst truth functionals are formalised by propositional logic.
So in short: above is my selection of favourite parts of what John Gabriel doesn't understand about elementary mathematics (mostly focused on analysis). I'll be very eager to see if he responds to this. Maybe he'll feature me in one video, it's quite comical to be called an ape by a crank.
Klyver is an ape and what bothers him the most is that it comes from someone (ME) who is far superior to him intellectually. I have already debunked all Klyver's objections and rants.
This will be the ONLY response Klyver gets on sci.math and it was not for his edification! You can't fix ape. Chuckle.
I love how you didn't adress anything I said, lmao. Gab, stop being this shitty at math fam. <3
I'm sorry, did I miss nothing? Chuckle.
Markus Klyver
2019-10-26 19:03:45 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Markus Klyver
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Markus Klyver
I've followed John Gabriel quite a while now, as I find dumb/shitty/cranky math and physics funny.
Anyone starting a rant with disparaging comments and libel is never taken seriously. Assertions and opinions are ... well, just that - assertions and opinions. Facts are something different.
Post by Markus Klyver
As I know how rude and completely unwilling John Gabriel is to learn anything new, this isn't a response to him.
The first thing the idiot Lambrou does is dismiss the fact that
[f(x+h)-f(x)]/h = f'(x)+Q(x,h) where Q(x,h) is some expression in h and/or x.
The problem: The above statement is a FACT. It is not up for debate.
Klyver has learned good English, so one must try to rearrange the order of those words before the nonsense can even begin to make sense.
Post by Markus Klyver
1. The derivative f' of a real function f is the limit of (f(x+h)-f(x))/h as h→0, given the limit exists.
This is FALSE as I have *proved* over and over again.
f'(x) = [f(x+h)-f(x)]/h - Q(x,h)
NEVER produces the derivative unless you do something really stupid such as discard Q(x,h), but in order to do this in your bogus calculus, you have to set h=0. Your limit hand waving bullshit doesn't cure the problem. It doesn't even address the problem. It's like placing a band-aid on a cut that needs many stitches. Chuckle.
It's like saying: "Look, we know it's nonsense to set h=0, but we'll say that we don't actually do it, even though what we do with limits is EQUIVALENT, because using limits we can show that a **known** derivative exists."
Post by Markus Klyver
Now, Gabriel claims this is ill-defined because generally limits are very hard to calculate.
Swine! I have never claimed any such thing. I understand limits better than you or anyone else on the planet. You fucking moron! I taught limit theory in my math classes and my students excelled at university because they knew how to separate bullshit from fact. At least, try to acquire the virtue of truth, because cranks like you are known to be liars and libelers.
Post by Markus Klyver
In fact, there is no systematic way to find a general limit.
WOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
How long did it take you to admit this, you pathetic, moronic crank?!!!!
There is no **valid** systematic way of finding a derivative (not limit).
It doesn't matter what you call your shit theory - it is still shit.
Post by Markus Klyver
This doesn't mean that the limit is ill-defined.
It means EXACTLY that the limit is ill defined.
Post by Markus Klyver
I could define x to be the 657566556787686578987965:th prime number, without knowing what x is.
You could, but reifying x is another story. It is also misleading then to say you don't know what is x because you already one attribute of x, that is, its appearance in the sequence of consecutive prime numbers.
Post by Markus Klyver
I know that a such prime number exists, hence x is well-defined.
No. Because you have not reified x. Reification means producing the prime number.
Post by Markus Klyver
Similarly for limits, given that the limit exists, it's well-defined.
Huh? Limits are not like *prime numbers*, you utter moron. There is no similarity whatsoever.
Post by Markus Klyver
In fact, the topological limit in (real) metric spaces is unique, so we can talk about *the* limit.
There is no connection with your bullshit limit in metric spaces and topology is known to be a bunch of crap with little or no use whatsoever.
https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/what-does-mean-concept-well-defined-john-gabriel
Post by Markus Klyver
an other example are integrals. Integrals are generally impossible to compute, and there is no known method or algoritm to calculate an arbitrary integral.
Bullshit. Definite integrals are computed in a well-defined way using the mean value theorem, as a product of two arithmetic means. Of course, if one has been infected with the rot of infinite rectangles and other crap, then it is impossible.
Post by Markus Klyver
We just know how to do it in very specific cases.
Rubbish. Any function f' which has a primitive f can be determined in a finite computation, that is, f(b)-f(a) is the integral.
Post by Markus Klyver
Not being able to calculate an integral doesn't mean it's undefined.
No one said it is undefined, you moron! It may have a limit that is not a number, but some incommensurable magnitude, in which case one use numeric integration and common sense which you so desperately lack.
Post by Markus Klyver
(He doesn't understand integrals either, but I'm too lazy to explain why his "definition" is not a definition.)
Chuckle. I am the first to prove the mean value theorem constructively and this dimwit claims I don't understand integration. LMAO.
https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-mOEooW03iLZG1pNlVIX2RTR0E
The fundamental theorem of calculus is derived in one step from the mean value theorem.
Post by Markus Klyver
I'm very surprised that he almost derived the more general definition of the derivative, but stumbled on the the finish line. An equivalent definition for the derivative is that f(x+h)-f(x) = Ah + hρ(h) for some function ρ that will go to 0 whenever h→0. To recover the usual definition, divide both sides with h and let h→0. Then (f(x+h)-f(x))/h = A+ρ(h) → A. This is the natural generalisation and usual definition of partial derivatives.
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1CIul68phzuOe6JZwsCuBuXUR8X-AkgEO/view
<irrelevant drivel in an attempt to prop up theory that has nothing to do with calculus or mathematics>
Post by Markus Klyver
We can think of A as an linear approximation, since when h is small, then ρ(h) will be to (by the definition of a limit).
For example, for f(x)= x², we would have ρ(h)=h, which of course goes it zero when h does it.
2. Convergence and limits in metric spaces are things Gabriel repeatably misunderstands. When we define convergence, we do that in a space. What that means is that we already have a space, and try to formalise what it means for something to converge *in that space*.
This means there could be metric spaces in which Cauchy sequences do not converge, because we require the limit to be in the metric space. An example would be the partial sums of the decimal expansion of sqrt(2) in the rationals. This forms a sequence not converging, because if it did it would have to be sqrt(2). We can decide to view the same sequence via an inclusion mapping ℚ↪ℝ as metric spaces, in which the same sequence does converge.
The chief property of Cauchy sequences is that they ALL converge. I don't give a shit to whether they converge to a rational number or an incommensurable magnitude.
sqrt(2) is NOT a number, but a symbol for an incommensurable magnitude. I guess you first have to learn what it means to be a number before you can understand what this means. It doesn't help memorising metric space theory which you don't understand and which is based off number theory that has been validated in certain aspects.
Post by Markus Klyver
Decimal expansions, as I mentioned above, are defined as limits.
Rubbish. In the mainstream only, they are defined as limits after the ideas of Euler's S = Lim S.
Post by Markus Klyver
More specifically, they are defined to be the limit of the partial sums. Since the partial sums of a real decimal expansion is Cauchy, they will converge in the real numbers.
Nonsense which has all been debunked in my free eBook. There is no valid construction of real number - it's a pipe dream. Neither Dedekind Cuts nor classes of equivalent Cauchy sequences are valid constructions.
Post by Markus Klyver
Metric spaces having this property are called complete.
One motivation for the real numbers is the completeness.
It's quite pathetic how mainstream morons introduce terms such as completeness in order to obfuscate the issue at hand. Fact is, completeness has ZERO to do with the issue and I have PROVED this in my first constructive proof of the mean value theorem.
Post by Markus Klyver
Real functions over R also behave nicely, such as obtaining a minimum and maximum on compact sets (w.r.t. the Borel topology generated by open intervals).
Many layman texts go over the details of these properties, which is of course why John Gabriel doesn't understand them. Of course: if Gabriel actually read an undergrad textbook in real analysis, he would understand that these properties are not as "deep" and abstract as he think they are.
Chuckle.
Post by Markus Klyver
3. His "definition" of numbers makes no sense. He starts off with the concept of a point "as an abstract idea of where you are". This seems to imply a very physical definition, and not something mathematicians would find very satisfying. He the gives a vague explanation of travelling between points (already assuming all sorts of things about how the Euclidean space works, and what velocity is). He then defines "lines" and circles as "distances", ignoring the fact that a distance usually is a *number* and not a path.
Klyver again misrepresenting and lying about everything I've written. Don't believe a word this moron utters. Read my free eBook. I won't even bother further.
Post by Markus Klyver
Finally, when defining a "number", he already assumes what a magnitude is, which is only vaguely defined as "the size or extent" or something. He mentions lengths, masses and volumes, but these are physical objects. So again: we define something in terms of something that depend on the physical nature, which is not a satisfying definition for a mathematician.
He further assumes that these magnitudes exists on their on, but by his own criteria these objects could never be ratified because they simple make no sense. What does it mean to have an abstract magnitude, if you don't realise it in some form of underlying space? Of course, Gabriel doesn't mention the usage of Euclidean space and the implicit axiomatization. The axioms of Euclidean space of course follows as "theorems" if you implicitly assume them.
4. And oh, 3 <--> 5-2 makes no sense since 3 and 5-2 aren't logical statements. A statement can be logically equivalent to an other statement, but it makes no sense to say that a number is logically equivalent to an other number. You can't logically say "5 implies cat". But you can say "if I have 5 cats, I have a cat." This is a logical statement of the form "If x, then y" and it happens to be (always) true.
As John Gabriel might read it, I'll give an other example of something that's always false: "If a have no cat, then I have two cats". This statement is formally false, but it still makes logically and formally sense. It's a formal statement which you can evaluate and assign a truth value to. So saying that "x is less or equal to 4" just means that we can check if x satisfies (x strictly less than 4) OR (x=4). This is a logical statement combined made up with two different statements connected with a truth-functional OR. This is the same OR which you encounter in a computer or electronics engineering class. One important difference is, of course, that physical logical gates depend on the physical reality whilst truth functionals are formalised by propositional logic.
So in short: above is my selection of favourite parts of what John Gabriel doesn't understand about elementary mathematics (mostly focused on analysis). I'll be very eager to see if he responds to this. Maybe he'll feature me in one video, it's quite comical to be called an ape by a crank.
Klyver is an ape and what bothers him the most is that it comes from someone (ME) who is far superior to him intellectually. I have already debunked all Klyver's objections and rants.
This will be the ONLY response Klyver gets on sci.math and it was not for his edification! You can't fix ape. Chuckle.
I love how you didn't adress anything I said, lmao. Gab, stop being this shitty at math fam. <3
I'm sorry, did I miss nothing? Chuckle.
Fam. STOP being bad at math. You can learn from us all, who know REAL math. Stop posting dumb shit on the Internet, your ma isn't proud of you babe. <3
Sergio
2019-10-27 16:56:47 UTC
Permalink
On 10/26/2019 2:03 PM, Markus Klyver wrote:

<snip crap>
Post by Markus Klyver
Fam. STOP being bad at math. You can learn from us all, who know REAL math. Stop posting dumb shit on the Internet, your ma isn't proud of you babe. <3
the dude is a tar baby, best to plonk him. let the raving loon wander
about on his own, he's just trying to get attention and ego perks.
Eram semper recta
2023-10-10 15:00:30 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Markus Klyver
I've followed John Gabriel quite a while now, as I find dumb/shitty/cranky math and physics funny.
Anyone starting a rant with disparaging comments and libel is never taken seriously. Assertions and opinions are ... well, just that - assertions and opinions. Facts are something different.
Post by Markus Klyver
As I know how rude and completely unwilling John Gabriel is to learn anything new, this isn't a response to him.
The first thing the idiot Lambrou does is dismiss the fact that
[f(x+h)-f(x)]/h = f'(x)+Q(x,h) where Q(x,h) is some expression in h and/or x.
The problem: The above statement is a FACT. It is not up for debate.
Klyver has learned good English, so one must try to rearrange the order of those words before the nonsense can even begin to make sense.
Post by Markus Klyver
1. The derivative f' of a real function f is the limit of (f(x+h)-f(x))/h as h→0, given the limit exists.
This is FALSE as I have *proved* over and over again.
f'(x) = [f(x+h)-f(x)]/h - Q(x,h)
NEVER produces the derivative unless you do something really stupid such as discard Q(x,h), but in order to do this in your bogus calculus, you have to set h=0. Your limit hand waving bullshit doesn't cure the problem. It doesn't even address the problem. It's like placing a band-aid on a cut that needs many stitches. Chuckle.
It's like saying: "Look, we know it's nonsense to set h=0, but we'll say that we don't actually do it, even though what we do with limits is EQUIVALENT, because using limits we can show that a **known** derivative exists."
Post by Markus Klyver
Now, Gabriel claims this is ill-defined because generally limits are very hard to calculate.
Swine! I have never claimed any such thing. I understand limits better than you or anyone else on the planet. You fucking moron! I taught limit theory in my math classes and my students excelled at university because they knew how to separate bullshit from fact. At least, try to acquire the virtue of truth, because cranks like you are known to be liars and libelers.
Post by Markus Klyver
In fact, there is no systematic way to find a general limit.
WOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
How long did it take you to admit this, you pathetic, moronic crank?!!!!
There is no **valid** systematic way of finding a derivative (not limit).
It doesn't matter what you call your shit theory - it is still shit.
Post by Markus Klyver
This doesn't mean that the limit is ill-defined.
It means EXACTLY that the limit is ill defined.
Post by Markus Klyver
I could define x to be the 657566556787686578987965:th prime number, without knowing what x is.
You could, but reifying x is another story. It is also misleading then to say you don't know what is x because you already one attribute of x, that is, its appearance in the sequence of consecutive prime numbers.
Post by Markus Klyver
I know that a such prime number exists, hence x is well-defined.
No. Because you have not reified x. Reification means producing the prime number.
Post by Markus Klyver
Similarly for limits, given that the limit exists, it's well-defined.
Huh? Limits are not like *prime numbers*, you utter moron. There is no similarity whatsoever.
Post by Markus Klyver
In fact, the topological limit in (real) metric spaces is unique, so we can talk about *the* limit.
There is no connection with your bullshit limit in metric spaces and topology is known to be a bunch of crap with little or no use whatsoever.
https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/what-does-mean-concept-well-defined-john-gabriel
Post by Markus Klyver
an other example are integrals. Integrals are generally impossible to compute, and there is no known method or algoritm to calculate an arbitrary integral.
Bullshit. Definite integrals are computed in a well-defined way using the mean value theorem, as a product of two arithmetic means. Of course, if one has been infected with the rot of infinite rectangles and other crap, then it is impossible.
Post by Markus Klyver
We just know how to do it in very specific cases.
Rubbish. Any function f' which has a primitive f can be determined in a finite computation, that is, f(b)-f(a) is the integral.
Post by Markus Klyver
Not being able to calculate an integral doesn't mean it's undefined.
No one said it is undefined, you moron! It may have a limit that is not a number, but some incommensurable magnitude, in which case one use numeric integration and common sense which you so desperately lack.
Post by Markus Klyver
(He doesn't understand integrals either, but I'm too lazy to explain why his "definition" is not a definition.)
Chuckle. I am the first to prove the mean value theorem constructively and this dimwit claims I don't understand integration. LMAO.
https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-mOEooW03iLZG1pNlVIX2RTR0E
The fundamental theorem of calculus is derived in one step from the mean value theorem.
Post by Markus Klyver
I'm very surprised that he almost derived the more general definition of the derivative, but stumbled on the the finish line. An equivalent definition for the derivative is that f(x+h)-f(x) = Ah + hρ(h) for some function ρ that will go to 0 whenever h→0. To recover the usual definition, divide both sides with h and let h→0. Then (f(x+h)-f(x))/h = A+ρ(h) → A. This is the natural generalisation and usual definition of partial derivatives.
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1CIul68phzuOe6JZwsCuBuXUR8X-AkgEO/view
<irrelevant drivel in an attempt to prop up theory that has nothing to do with calculus or mathematics>
Post by Markus Klyver
We can think of A as an linear approximation, since when h is small, then ρ(h) will be to (by the definition of a limit).
For example, for f(x)= x², we would have ρ(h)=h, which of course goes it zero when h does it.
2. Convergence and limits in metric spaces are things Gabriel repeatably misunderstands. When we define convergence, we do that in a space. What that means is that we already have a space, and try to formalise what it means for something to converge *in that space*.
This means there could be metric spaces in which Cauchy sequences do not converge, because we require the limit to be in the metric space. An example would be the partial sums of the decimal expansion of sqrt(2) in the rationals. This forms a sequence not converging, because if it did it would have to be sqrt(2). We can decide to view the same sequence via an inclusion mapping ℚ↪ℝ as metric spaces, in which the same sequence does converge.
The chief property of Cauchy sequences is that they ALL converge. I don't give a shit to whether they converge to a rational number or an incommensurable magnitude.
sqrt(2) is NOT a number, but a symbol for an incommensurable magnitude. I guess you first have to learn what it means to be a number before you can understand what this means. It doesn't help memorising metric space theory which you don't understand and which is based off number theory that has been validated in certain aspects.
Post by Markus Klyver
Decimal expansions, as I mentioned above, are defined as limits.
Rubbish. In the mainstream only, they are defined as limits after the ideas of Euler's S = Lim S.
Post by Markus Klyver
More specifically, they are defined to be the limit of the partial sums. Since the partial sums of a real decimal expansion is Cauchy, they will converge in the real numbers.
Nonsense which has all been debunked in my free eBook. There is no valid construction of real number - it's a pipe dream. Neither Dedekind Cuts nor classes of equivalent Cauchy sequences are valid constructions.
Post by Markus Klyver
Metric spaces having this property are called complete.
One motivation for the real numbers is the completeness.
It's quite pathetic how mainstream morons introduce terms such as completeness in order to obfuscate the issue at hand. Fact is, completeness has ZERO to do with the issue and I have PROVED this in my first constructive proof of the mean value theorem.
Post by Markus Klyver
Real functions over R also behave nicely, such as obtaining a minimum and maximum on compact sets (w.r.t. the Borel topology generated by open intervals).
Many layman texts go over the details of these properties, which is of course why John Gabriel doesn't understand them. Of course: if Gabriel actually read an undergrad textbook in real analysis, he would understand that these properties are not as "deep" and abstract as he think they are.
Chuckle.
Post by Markus Klyver
3. His "definition" of numbers makes no sense. He starts off with the concept of a point "as an abstract idea of where you are". This seems to imply a very physical definition, and not something mathematicians would find very satisfying. He the gives a vague explanation of travelling between points (already assuming all sorts of things about how the Euclidean space works, and what velocity is). He then defines "lines" and circles as "distances", ignoring the fact that a distance usually is a *number* and not a path.
Klyver again misrepresenting and lying about everything I've written. Don't believe a word this moron utters. Read my free eBook. I won't even bother further.
Post by Markus Klyver
Finally, when defining a "number", he already assumes what a magnitude is, which is only vaguely defined as "the size or extent" or something. He mentions lengths, masses and volumes, but these are physical objects. So again: we define something in terms of something that depend on the physical nature, which is not a satisfying definition for a mathematician.
He further assumes that these magnitudes exists on their on, but by his own criteria these objects could never be ratified because they simple make no sense. What does it mean to have an abstract magnitude, if you don't realise it in some form of underlying space? Of course, Gabriel doesn't mention the usage of Euclidean space and the implicit axiomatization. The axioms of Euclidean space of course follows as "theorems" if you implicitly assume them.
4. And oh, 3 <--> 5-2 makes no sense since 3 and 5-2 aren't logical statements. A statement can be logically equivalent to an other statement, but it makes no sense to say that a number is logically equivalent to an other number. You can't logically say "5 implies cat". But you can say "if I have 5 cats, I have a cat." This is a logical statement of the form "If x, then y" and it happens to be (always) true.
As John Gabriel might read it, I'll give an other example of something that's always false: "If a have no cat, then I have two cats". This statement is formally false, but it still makes logically and formally sense. It's a formal statement which you can evaluate and assign a truth value to. So saying that "x is less or equal to 4" just means that we can check if x satisfies (x strictly less than 4) OR (x=4). This is a logical statement combined made up with two different statements connected with a truth-functional OR. This is the same OR which you encounter in a computer or electronics engineering class. One important difference is, of course, that physical logical gates depend on the physical reality whilst truth functionals are formalised by propositional logic.
So in short: above is my selection of favourite parts of what John Gabriel doesn't understand about elementary mathematics (mostly focused on analysis). I'll be very eager to see if he responds to this. Maybe he'll feature me in one video, it's quite comical to be called an ape by a crank.
Klyver is an ape and what bothers him the most is that it comes from someone (ME) who is far superior to him intellectually. I have already debunked all Klyver's objections and rants.
This will be the ONLY response Klyver gets on sci.math and it was not for his edification! You can't fix ape. Chuckle.
Ρε μαλάκα Λαμβρού!

https://www.academia.edu/106231615/%CE%A4%CE%BF_%CE%99%CE%B5%CF%81%CF%8C_%CE%94%CE%B9%CF%83%CE%BA%CE%BF%CF%80%CF%8C%CF%84%CE%B7%CF%81%CE%BF_%CF%84%CE%BF%CF%85_%CE%9B%CE%BF%CE%B3%CE%B9%CF%83%CE%BC%CE%BF%CF%8D

Διάβασε και φάε σκατά, ρε χαζό κυπριακό! Βλάκας! Νόμιζες ότι έκανα λάθος, ε μαλάκα;

Είσαι ακόμα ο αρχιπίθηκος στο mathematica.gr;
markus...@gmail.com
2024-02-20 20:35:46 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Markus Klyver
I've followed John Gabriel quite a while now, as I find dumb/shitty/cranky math and physics funny.
Anyone starting a rant with disparaging comments and libel is never taken seriously. Assertions and opinions are ... well, just that - assertions and opinions. Facts are something different.
Post by Markus Klyver
As I know how rude and completely unwilling John Gabriel is to learn anything new, this isn't a response to him.
The first thing the idiot Lambrou does is dismiss the fact that
[f(x+h)-f(x)]/h = f'(x)+Q(x,h) where Q(x,h) is some expression in h and/or x.
The problem: The above statement is a FACT. It is not up for debate.
Klyver has learned good English, so one must try to rearrange the order of those words before the nonsense can even begin to make sense.
Post by Markus Klyver
1. The derivative f' of a real function f is the limit of (f(x+h)-f(x))/h as h→0, given the limit exists.
This is FALSE as I have *proved* over and over again.
f'(x) = [f(x+h)-f(x)]/h - Q(x,h)
NEVER produces the derivative unless you do something really stupid such as discard Q(x,h), but in order to do this in your bogus calculus, you have to set h=0. Your limit hand waving bullshit doesn't cure the problem. It doesn't even address the problem. It's like placing a band-aid on a cut that needs many stitches. Chuckle.
It's like saying: "Look, we know it's nonsense to set h=0, but we'll say that we don't actually do it, even though what we do with limits is EQUIVALENT, because using limits we can show that a **known** derivative exists."
Post by Markus Klyver
Now, Gabriel claims this is ill-defined because generally limits are very hard to calculate.
Swine! I have never claimed any such thing. I understand limits better than you or anyone else on the planet. You fucking moron! I taught limit theory in my math classes and my students excelled at university because they knew how to separate bullshit from fact. At least, try to acquire the virtue of truth, because cranks like you are known to be liars and libelers.
Post by Markus Klyver
In fact, there is no systematic way to find a general limit.
WOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
How long did it take you to admit this, you pathetic, moronic crank?!!!!
There is no **valid** systematic way of finding a derivative (not limit).
It doesn't matter what you call your shit theory - it is still shit.
Post by Markus Klyver
This doesn't mean that the limit is ill-defined.
It means EXACTLY that the limit is ill defined.
Post by Markus Klyver
I could define x to be the 657566556787686578987965:th prime number, without knowing what x is.
You could, but reifying x is another story. It is also misleading then to say you don't know what is x because you already one attribute of x, that is, its appearance in the sequence of consecutive prime numbers.
Post by Markus Klyver
I know that a such prime number exists, hence x is well-defined.
No. Because you have not reified x. Reification means producing the prime number.
Post by Markus Klyver
Similarly for limits, given that the limit exists, it's well-defined.
Huh? Limits are not like *prime numbers*, you utter moron. There is no similarity whatsoever.
Post by Markus Klyver
In fact, the topological limit in (real) metric spaces is unique, so we can talk about *the* limit.
There is no connection with your bullshit limit in metric spaces and topology is known to be a bunch of crap with little or no use whatsoever.
https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/what-does-mean-concept-well-defined-john-gabriel
Post by Markus Klyver
an other example are integrals. Integrals are generally impossible to compute, and there is no known method or algoritm to calculate an arbitrary integral.
Bullshit. Definite integrals are computed in a well-defined way using the mean value theorem, as a product of two arithmetic means. Of course, if one has been infected with the rot of infinite rectangles and other crap, then it is impossible.
Post by Markus Klyver
We just know how to do it in very specific cases.
Rubbish. Any function f' which has a primitive f can be determined in a finite computation, that is, f(b)-f(a) is the integral.
Post by Markus Klyver
Not being able to calculate an integral doesn't mean it's undefined.
No one said it is undefined, you moron! It may have a limit that is not a number, but some incommensurable magnitude, in which case one use numeric integration and common sense which you so desperately lack.
Post by Markus Klyver
(He doesn't understand integrals either, but I'm too lazy to explain why his "definition" is not a definition.)
Chuckle. I am the first to prove the mean value theorem constructively and this dimwit claims I don't understand integration. LMAO.
https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-mOEooW03iLZG1pNlVIX2RTR0E
The fundamental theorem of calculus is derived in one step from the mean value theorem.
Post by Markus Klyver
I'm very surprised that he almost derived the more general definition of the derivative, but stumbled on the the finish line. An equivalent definition for the derivative is that f(x+h)-f(x) = Ah + hρ(h) for some function ρ that will go to 0 whenever h→0. To recover the usual definition, divide both sides with h and let h→0. Then (f(x+h)-f(x))/h = A+ρ(h) → A. This is the natural generalisation and usual definition of partial derivatives.
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1CIul68phzuOe6JZwsCuBuXUR8X-AkgEO/view
<irrelevant drivel in an attempt to prop up theory that has nothing to do with calculus or mathematics>
Post by Markus Klyver
We can think of A as an linear approximation, since when h is small, then ρ(h) will be to (by the definition of a limit).
For example, for f(x)= x², we would have ρ(h)=h, which of course goes it zero when h does it.
2. Convergence and limits in metric spaces are things Gabriel repeatably misunderstands. When we define convergence, we do that in a space. What that means is that we already have a space, and try to formalise what it means for something to converge *in that space*.
This means there could be metric spaces in which Cauchy sequences do not converge, because we require the limit to be in the metric space. An example would be the partial sums of the decimal expansion of sqrt(2) in the rationals. This forms a sequence not converging, because if it did it would have to be sqrt(2). We can decide to view the same sequence via an inclusion mapping ℚ↪ℝ as metric spaces, in which the same sequence does converge.
The chief property of Cauchy sequences is that they ALL converge. I don't give a shit to whether they converge to a rational number or an incommensurable magnitude.
sqrt(2) is NOT a number, but a symbol for an incommensurable magnitude. I guess you first have to learn what it means to be a number before you can understand what this means. It doesn't help memorising metric space theory which you don't understand and which is based off number theory that has been validated in certain aspects.
Post by Markus Klyver
Decimal expansions, as I mentioned above, are defined as limits.
Rubbish. In the mainstream only, they are defined as limits after the ideas of Euler's S = Lim S.
Post by Markus Klyver
More specifically, they are defined to be the limit of the partial sums. Since the partial sums of a real decimal expansion is Cauchy, they will converge in the real numbers.
Nonsense which has all been debunked in my free eBook. There is no valid construction of real number - it's a pipe dream. Neither Dedekind Cuts nor classes of equivalent Cauchy sequences are valid constructions.
Post by Markus Klyver
Metric spaces having this property are called complete.
One motivation for the real numbers is the completeness.
It's quite pathetic how mainstream morons introduce terms such as completeness in order to obfuscate the issue at hand. Fact is, completeness has ZERO to do with the issue and I have PROVED this in my first constructive proof of the mean value theorem.
Post by Markus Klyver
Real functions over R also behave nicely, such as obtaining a minimum and maximum on compact sets (w.r.t. the Borel topology generated by open intervals).
Many layman texts go over the details of these properties, which is of course why John Gabriel doesn't understand them. Of course: if Gabriel actually read an undergrad textbook in real analysis, he would understand that these properties are not as "deep" and abstract as he think they are.
Chuckle.
Post by Markus Klyver
3. His "definition" of numbers makes no sense. He starts off with the concept of a point "as an abstract idea of where you are". This seems to imply a very physical definition, and not something mathematicians would find very satisfying. He the gives a vague explanation of travelling between points (already assuming all sorts of things about how the Euclidean space works, and what velocity is). He then defines "lines" and circles as "distances", ignoring the fact that a distance usually is a *number* and not a path.
Klyver again misrepresenting and lying about everything I've written. Don't believe a word this moron utters. Read my free eBook. I won't even bother further.
Post by Markus Klyver
Finally, when defining a "number", he already assumes what a magnitude is, which is only vaguely defined as "the size or extent" or something. He mentions lengths, masses and volumes, but these are physical objects. So again: we define something in terms of something that depend on the physical nature, which is not a satisfying definition for a mathematician.
He further assumes that these magnitudes exists on their on, but by his own criteria these objects could never be ratified because they simple make no sense. What does it mean to have an abstract magnitude, if you don't realise it in some form of underlying space? Of course, Gabriel doesn't mention the usage of Euclidean space and the implicit axiomatization. The axioms of Euclidean space of course follows as "theorems" if you implicitly assume them.
4. And oh, 3 <--> 5-2 makes no sense since 3 and 5-2 aren't logical statements. A statement can be logically equivalent to an other statement, but it makes no sense to say that a number is logically equivalent to an other number. You can't logically say "5 implies cat". But you can say "if I have 5 cats, I have a cat." This is a logical statement of the form "If x, then y" and it happens to be (always) true.
As John Gabriel might read it, I'll give an other example of something that's always false: "If a have no cat, then I have two cats". This statement is formally false, but it still makes logically and formally sense. It's a formal statement which you can evaluate and assign a truth value to. So saying that "x is less or equal to 4" just means that we can check if x satisfies (x strictly less than 4) OR (x=4). This is a logical statement combined made up with two different statements connected with a truth-functional OR. This is the same OR which you encounter in a computer or electronics engineering class. One important difference is, of course, that physical logical gates depend on the physical reality whilst truth functionals are formalised by propositional logic.
So in short: above is my selection of favourite parts of what John Gabriel doesn't understand about elementary mathematics (mostly focused on analysis). I'll be very eager to see if he responds to this. Maybe he'll feature me in one video, it's quite comical to be called an ape by a crank.
Klyver is an ape and what bothers him the most is that it comes from someone (ME) who is far superior to him intellectually. I have already debunked all Klyver's objections and rants.
This will be the ONLY response Klyver gets on sci.math and it was not for his edification! You can't fix ape. Chuckle.
Stil haven't addressed a thing.

bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-26 13:31:35 UTC
Permalink
Post by Markus Klyver
I've followed John Gabriel quite a while now, as I find dumb/shitty/cranky math and physics funny. As I know how rude and completely unwilling John Gabriel is to learn anything new, this isn't a response to him.
1. The derivative f' of a real function f is the limit of (f(x+h)-f(x))/h as h→0, given the limit exists. Now, Gabriel claims this is ill-defined because generally limits are very hard to calculate. In fact, there is no systematic way to find a general limit.
This doesn't mean that the limit is ill-defined. I could define x to be the 657566556787686578987965:th prime number, without knowing what x is. I know that a such prime number exists, hence x is well-defined. Similarly for limits, given that the limit exists, it's well-defined. In fact, the topological limit in (real) metric spaces is unique, so we can talk about *the* limit.
There is no requirement on actually being able to *compute* something you've defined in order for it to be well-defined: an other example are integrals. Integrals are generally impossible to compute, and there is no known method or algoritm to calculate an arbitrary integral. We just know how to do it in very specific cases. Not being able to calculate an integral doesn't mean it's undefined.
(He doesn't understand integrals either, but I'm too lazy to explain why his "definition" is not a definition.)
I'm very surprised that he almost derived the more general definition of the derivative, but stumbled on the the finish line. An equivalent definition for the derivative is that f(x+h)-f(x) = Ah + hρ(h) for some function ρ that will go to 0 whenever h→0. To recover the usual definition, divide both sides with h and let h→0. Then (f(x+h)-f(x))/h = A+ρ(h) → A. This is the natural generalisation and usual definition of partial derivatives.
We can think of A as an linear approximation, since when h is small, then ρ(h) will be to (by the definition of a limit).
For example, for f(x)= x², we would have ρ(h)=h, which of course goes it zero when h does it.
2. Convergence and limits in metric spaces are things Gabriel repeatably misunderstands. When we define convergence, we do that in a space. What that means is that we already have a space, and try to formalise what it means for something to converge *in that space*.
This means there could be metric spaces in which Cauchy sequences do not converge, because we require the limit to be in the metric space. An example would be the partial sums of the decimal expansion of sqrt(2) in the rationals. This forms a sequence not converging, because if it did it would have to be sqrt(2). We can decide to view the same sequence via an inclusion mapping ℚ↪ℝ as metric spaces, in which the same sequence does converge.
Decimal expansions, as I mentioned above, are defined as limits. More specifically, they are defined to be the limit of the partial sums. Since the partial sums of a real decimal expansion is Cauchy, they will converge in the real numbers. Metric spaces having this property are called complete.
One motivation for the real numbers is the completeness. Real functions over R also behave nicely, such as obtaining a minimum and maximum on compact sets (w.r.t. the Borel topology generated by open intervals).
Many layman texts go over the details of these properties, which is of course why John Gabriel doesn't understand them. Of course: if Gabriel actually read an undergrad textbook in real analysis, he would understand that these properties are not as "deep" and abstract as he think they are.
3. His "definition" of numbers makes no sense. He starts off with the concept of a point "as an abstract idea of where you are". This seems to imply a very physical definition, and not something mathematicians would find very satisfying. He the gives a vague explanation of travelling between points (already assuming all sorts of things about how the Euclidean space works, and what velocity is). He then defines "lines" and circles as "distances", ignoring the fact that a distance usually is a *number* and not a path.
Finally, when defining a "number", he already assumes what a magnitude is, which is only vaguely defined as "the size or extent" or something. He mentions lengths, masses and volumes, but these are physical objects. So again: we define something in terms of something that depend on the physical nature, which is not a satisfying definition for a mathematician.
He further assumes that these magnitudes exists on their on, but by his own criteria these objects could never be ratified because they simple make no sense. What does it mean to have an abstract magnitude, if you don't realise it in some form of underlying space? Of course, Gabriel doesn't mention the usage of Euclidean space and the implicit axiomatization. The axioms of Euclidean space of course follows as "theorems" if you implicitly assume them.
4. And oh, 3 <--> 5-2 makes no sense since 3 and 5-2 aren't logical statements. A statement can be logically equivalent to an other statement, but it makes no sense to say that a number is logically equivalent to an other number. You can't logically say "5 implies cat". But you can say "if I have 5 cats, I have a cat." This is a logical statement of the form "If x, then y" and it happens to be (always) true.
As John Gabriel might read it, I'll give an other example of something that's always false: "If a have no cat, then I have two cats". This statement is formally false, but it still makes logically and formally sense. It's a formal statement which you can evaluate and assign a truth value to. So saying that "x is less or equal to 4" just means that we can check if x satisfies (x strictly less than 4) OR (x=4). This is a logical statement combined made up with two different statements connected with a truth-functional OR. This is the same OR which you encounter in a computer or electronics engineering class. One important difference is, of course, that physical logical gates depend on the physical reality whilst truth functionals are formalised by propositional logic.
So in short: above is my selection of favourite parts of what John Gabriel doesn't understand about elementary mathematics (mostly focused on analysis). I'll be very eager to see if he responds to this. Maybe he'll feature me in one video, it's quite comical to be called an ape by a crank.
In short, I'm not sorry to say that you lost since you stubbornly refuse to understand that with many too elementary published proofs here on sci.math by JG about the standard calculus taught at schools and universities is quite wrong at the base, For sure

But to be fair enough, it isn't even so bad enough as to consider it for little carpentry works that don't need that accuracy, where this entirely was made by engineers or for practical works

It mustn't be used in any serious physical important studies since this would be very dangerous FOR SURE

BKK
Dan Christensen
2019-10-26 14:30:07 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Markus Klyver
I've followed John Gabriel quite a while now, as I find dumb/shitty/cranky math and physics funny. As I know how rude and completely unwilling John Gabriel is to learn anything new, this isn't a response to him.
1. The derivative f' of a real function f is the limit of (f(x+h)-f(x))/h as h→0, given the limit exists. Now, Gabriel claims this is ill-defined because generally limits are very hard to calculate. In fact, there is no systematic way to find a general limit.
This doesn't mean that the limit is ill-defined. I could define x to be the 657566556787686578987965:th prime number, without knowing what x is. I know that a such prime number exists, hence x is well-defined. Similarly for limits, given that the limit exists, it's well-defined. In fact, the topological limit in (real) metric spaces is unique, so we can talk about *the* limit.
There is no requirement on actually being able to *compute* something you've defined in order for it to be well-defined: an other example are integrals. Integrals are generally impossible to compute, and there is no known method or algoritm to calculate an arbitrary integral. We just know how to do it in very specific cases. Not being able to calculate an integral doesn't mean it's undefined.
(He doesn't understand integrals either, but I'm too lazy to explain why his "definition" is not a definition.)
I'm very surprised that he almost derived the more general definition of the derivative, but stumbled on the the finish line. An equivalent definition for the derivative is that f(x+h)-f(x) = Ah + hρ(h) for some function ρ that will go to 0 whenever h→0. To recover the usual definition, divide both sides with h and let h→0. Then (f(x+h)-f(x))/h = A+ρ(h) → A. This is the natural generalisation and usual definition of partial derivatives.
We can think of A as an linear approximation, since when h is small, then ρ(h) will be to (by the definition of a limit).
For example, for f(x)= x², we would have ρ(h)=h, which of course goes it zero when h does it.
2. Convergence and limits in metric spaces are things Gabriel repeatably misunderstands. When we define convergence, we do that in a space. What that means is that we already have a space, and try to formalise what it means for something to converge *in that space*.
This means there could be metric spaces in which Cauchy sequences do not converge, because we require the limit to be in the metric space. An example would be the partial sums of the decimal expansion of sqrt(2) in the rationals. This forms a sequence not converging, because if it did it would have to be sqrt(2). We can decide to view the same sequence via an inclusion mapping ℚ↪ℝ as metric spaces, in which the same sequence does converge.
Decimal expansions, as I mentioned above, are defined as limits. More specifically, they are defined to be the limit of the partial sums. Since the partial sums of a real decimal expansion is Cauchy, they will converge in the real numbers. Metric spaces having this property are called complete.
One motivation for the real numbers is the completeness. Real functions over R also behave nicely, such as obtaining a minimum and maximum on compact sets (w.r.t. the Borel topology generated by open intervals).
Many layman texts go over the details of these properties, which is of course why John Gabriel doesn't understand them. Of course: if Gabriel actually read an undergrad textbook in real analysis, he would understand that these properties are not as "deep" and abstract as he think they are.
3. His "definition" of numbers makes no sense. He starts off with the concept of a point "as an abstract idea of where you are". This seems to imply a very physical definition, and not something mathematicians would find very satisfying. He the gives a vague explanation of travelling between points (already assuming all sorts of things about how the Euclidean space works, and what velocity is). He then defines "lines" and circles as "distances", ignoring the fact that a distance usually is a *number* and not a path.
Finally, when defining a "number", he already assumes what a magnitude is, which is only vaguely defined as "the size or extent" or something. He mentions lengths, masses and volumes, but these are physical objects. So again: we define something in terms of something that depend on the physical nature, which is not a satisfying definition for a mathematician.
He further assumes that these magnitudes exists on their on, but by his own criteria these objects could never be ratified because they simple make no sense. What does it mean to have an abstract magnitude, if you don't realise it in some form of underlying space? Of course, Gabriel doesn't mention the usage of Euclidean space and the implicit axiomatization. The axioms of Euclidean space of course follows as "theorems" if you implicitly assume them.
4. And oh, 3 <--> 5-2 makes no sense since 3 and 5-2 aren't logical statements. A statement can be logically equivalent to an other statement, but it makes no sense to say that a number is logically equivalent to an other number. You can't logically say "5 implies cat". But you can say "if I have 5 cats, I have a cat." This is a logical statement of the form "If x, then y" and it happens to be (always) true.
As John Gabriel might read it, I'll give an other example of something that's always false: "If a have no cat, then I have two cats". This statement is formally false, but it still makes logically and formally sense. It's a formal statement which you can evaluate and assign a truth value to. So saying that "x is less or equal to 4" just means that we can check if x satisfies (x strictly less than 4) OR (x=4). This is a logical statement combined made up with two different statements connected with a truth-functional OR. This is the same OR which you encounter in a computer or electronics engineering class. One important difference is, of course, that physical logical gates depend on the physical reality whilst truth functionals are formalised by propositional logic.
So in short: above is my selection of favourite parts of what John Gabriel doesn't understand about elementary mathematics (mostly focused on analysis). I'll be very eager to see if he responds to this. Maybe he'll feature me in one video, it's quite comical to be called an ape by a crank.
In short, I'm not sorry to say that you lost since you stubbornly refuse to understand that with many too elementary published proofs here on sci.math by JG about the standard calculus taught at schools and universities is quite wrong at the base, For sure
But to be fair enough, it isn't even so bad enough as to consider it for little carpentry works that don't need that accuracy, where this entirely was made by engineers or for practical works
It mustn't be used in any serious physical important studies since this would be very dangerous FOR SURE
You mean like landing a probe with near pinpoint accuracy on Mars, so far away that a radio signal take several minutes to arrive there from Earth. Let's see you do that with your goofy little system, Crank Boy. Counting your fingers and toes just won't do it.


The psycho troll BKK who wrote here:

“Those many challenges of mine (in my posts) weren't actually designed for human beings, but for the future artificial beings that would certainly replace them not far away from now, for sure.”
-- BKK, Dec. 6, 2017

“You know certainly that I'm the man, and more specially the KING who is going to upside down most of your current false mathematics for all future generations.”
-- BKK, Nov. 22, 2018

Math failure, BKK, doesn't believe in negative numbers, zero or numbers like pi and root 2. He doesn't even believe in 40 degree angles or circles. Really! Needless to say his own goofy system is getting nowhere and never will. As such he is insanely jealous of wildly successful mainstream mathematics. He seems to believe these super-intelligent artificial beings of his will somehow be enlisting his aid to "reform" mathematics worldwide when they take over the planet in the near future. He is truly delusional.


Dan

Download my DC Proof 2.0 freeware at http://www.dcproof.com
Visit my Math Blog at http://www.dcproof.wordpress.com
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-26 18:28:51 UTC
Permalink
Post by Dan Christensen
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Markus Klyver
I've followed John Gabriel quite a while now, as I find dumb/shitty/cranky math and physics funny. As I know how rude and completely unwilling John Gabriel is to learn anything new, this isn't a response to him.
1. The derivative f' of a real function f is the limit of (f(x+h)-f(x))/h as h→0, given the limit exists. Now, Gabriel claims this is ill-defined because generally limits are very hard to calculate. In fact, there is no systematic way to find a general limit.
This doesn't mean that the limit is ill-defined. I could define x to be the 657566556787686578987965:th prime number, without knowing what x is. I know that a such prime number exists, hence x is well-defined. Similarly for limits, given that the limit exists, it's well-defined. In fact, the topological limit in (real) metric spaces is unique, so we can talk about *the* limit.
There is no requirement on actually being able to *compute* something you've defined in order for it to be well-defined: an other example are integrals. Integrals are generally impossible to compute, and there is no known method or algoritm to calculate an arbitrary integral. We just know how to do it in very specific cases. Not being able to calculate an integral doesn't mean it's undefined.
(He doesn't understand integrals either, but I'm too lazy to explain why his "definition" is not a definition.)
I'm very surprised that he almost derived the more general definition of the derivative, but stumbled on the the finish line. An equivalent definition for the derivative is that f(x+h)-f(x) = Ah + hρ(h) for some function ρ that will go to 0 whenever h→0. To recover the usual definition, divide both sides with h and let h→0. Then (f(x+h)-f(x))/h = A+ρ(h) → A. This is the natural generalisation and usual definition of partial derivatives.
We can think of A as an linear approximation, since when h is small, then ρ(h) will be to (by the definition of a limit).
For example, for f(x)= x², we would have ρ(h)=h, which of course goes it zero when h does it.
2. Convergence and limits in metric spaces are things Gabriel repeatably misunderstands. When we define convergence, we do that in a space. What that means is that we already have a space, and try to formalise what it means for something to converge *in that space*.
This means there could be metric spaces in which Cauchy sequences do not converge, because we require the limit to be in the metric space. An example would be the partial sums of the decimal expansion of sqrt(2) in the rationals. This forms a sequence not converging, because if it did it would have to be sqrt(2). We can decide to view the same sequence via an inclusion mapping ℚ↪ℝ as metric spaces, in which the same sequence does converge.
Decimal expansions, as I mentioned above, are defined as limits. More specifically, they are defined to be the limit of the partial sums. Since the partial sums of a real decimal expansion is Cauchy, they will converge in the real numbers. Metric spaces having this property are called complete.
One motivation for the real numbers is the completeness. Real functions over R also behave nicely, such as obtaining a minimum and maximum on compact sets (w.r.t. the Borel topology generated by open intervals).
Many layman texts go over the details of these properties, which is of course why John Gabriel doesn't understand them. Of course: if Gabriel actually read an undergrad textbook in real analysis, he would understand that these properties are not as "deep" and abstract as he think they are.
3. His "definition" of numbers makes no sense. He starts off with the concept of a point "as an abstract idea of where you are". This seems to imply a very physical definition, and not something mathematicians would find very satisfying. He the gives a vague explanation of travelling between points (already assuming all sorts of things about how the Euclidean space works, and what velocity is). He then defines "lines" and circles as "distances", ignoring the fact that a distance usually is a *number* and not a path.
Finally, when defining a "number", he already assumes what a magnitude is, which is only vaguely defined as "the size or extent" or something. He mentions lengths, masses and volumes, but these are physical objects. So again: we define something in terms of something that depend on the physical nature, which is not a satisfying definition for a mathematician.
He further assumes that these magnitudes exists on their on, but by his own criteria these objects could never be ratified because they simple make no sense. What does it mean to have an abstract magnitude, if you don't realise it in some form of underlying space? Of course, Gabriel doesn't mention the usage of Euclidean space and the implicit axiomatization. The axioms of Euclidean space of course follows as "theorems" if you implicitly assume them.
4. And oh, 3 <--> 5-2 makes no sense since 3 and 5-2 aren't logical statements. A statement can be logically equivalent to an other statement, but it makes no sense to say that a number is logically equivalent to an other number. You can't logically say "5 implies cat". But you can say "if I have 5 cats, I have a cat." This is a logical statement of the form "If x, then y" and it happens to be (always) true.
As John Gabriel might read it, I'll give an other example of something that's always false: "If a have no cat, then I have two cats". This statement is formally false, but it still makes logically and formally sense. It's a formal statement which you can evaluate and assign a truth value to. So saying that "x is less or equal to 4" just means that we can check if x satisfies (x strictly less than 4) OR (x=4). This is a logical statement combined made up with two different statements connected with a truth-functional OR. This is the same OR which you encounter in a computer or electronics engineering class. One important difference is, of course, that physical logical gates depend on the physical reality whilst truth functionals are formalised by propositional logic.
So in short: above is my selection of favourite parts of what John Gabriel doesn't understand about elementary mathematics (mostly focused on analysis). I'll be very eager to see if he responds to this. Maybe he'll feature me in one video, it's quite comical to be called an ape by a crank.
In short, I'm not sorry to say that you lost since you stubbornly refuse to understand that with many too elementary published proofs here on sci.math by JG about the standard calculus taught at schools and universities is quite wrong at the base, For sure
But to be fair enough, it isn't even so bad enough as to consider it for little carpentry works that don't need that accuracy, where this entirely was made by engineers or for practical works
It mustn't be used in any serious physical important studies since this would be very dangerous FOR SURE
You mean like landing a probe with near pinpoint accuracy on Mars, so far away that a radio signal take several minutes to arrive there from Earth. Let's see you do that with your goofy little system, Crank Boy. Counting your fingers and toes just won't do it.
You are a typical Academic professional mathematician, Right?

Then keep the technology issues aside for its true makers, since they are certainly better than you in your maths, but you don't know this fact yet

What did I mean exactly is something that is impossible to be well-understood especially by YOU

I meant to say along with your example if the distance in (mm) from a position on earth you choose to a position on Mars is (N) (mm), where (N) is a natural number and a side of any right-angle triangle, and once you reduce that distance only by one (mm), then that triangle is no more any right angle, FOR SURE

If you still can't believe what I tought you earlier, then go and ask your best master about it, since the issue is pure mathematics and never that carpentry mathematics you are living in, sure
Post by Dan Christensen
“Those many challenges of mine (in my posts) weren't actually designed for human beings, but for the future artificial beings that would certainly replace them not far away from now, for sure.”
-- BKK, Dec. 6, 2017
And my *ALL* mathematical *PUBLISHED* challenges are miraculously still *STANDING* FOR SURE
Post by Dan Christensen
“You know certainly that I'm the man, and more specially the KING who is going to upside down most of your current false mathematics for all future generations.”
-- BKK, Nov. 22, 2018
It is already done and since long ago, FOR SURE
Post by Dan Christensen
Math failure, BKK, doesn't believe in negative numbers, zero or numbers like pi and root 2. He doesn't even believe in 40 degree angles or circles. Really! Needless to say his own goofy system is getting nowhere and never will. As such he is insanely jealous of wildly successful mainstream mathematics. He seems to believe these super-intelligent artificial beings of his will somehow be enlisting his aid to "reform" mathematics worldwide when they take over the planet in the near future. He is truly delusional.
Dan
Download my DC Proof 2.0 freeware at http://www.dcproof.com
Visit my Math Blog at http://www.dcproof.wordpress.com
Dare you get your 40 degrees angle in only one triangle, but with ***EXACT*** known sides moron?

You can't, nor anyone on earth OR the sky can (including my self) FOR SURER

But feel more frustration, the angle (30 degrees) can be still shown in many triangles with exactly known sides, sure

And all angles don't make a difference for morons of your like, simply because they are still so delusional with old wrong mathematics that had started with the circle, where so funnily, there was no circle at the end, FOR SURE

And this is the eventual dead end of your entire fake mathematics, for surer

And still, no hint for you, No wonder!

Game is over you stupid non-human creature, the (A.I) would soon force those facts upon you where you will relax, FOR SUREST
BKK
Dan Christensen
2019-10-26 20:47:59 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Dan Christensen
Post by bassam king karzeddin
It mustn't be used in any serious physical important studies since this would be very dangerous FOR SURE
You mean like landing a probe with near pinpoint accuracy on Mars, so far away that a radio signal take several minutes to arrive there from Earth. Let's see you do that with your goofy little system, Crank Boy. Counting your fingers and toes just won't do it.
You are a typical Academic professional mathematician, Right?
No.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Then keep the technology issues aside for its true makers, since they are certainly better than you in your maths, but you don't know this fact yet
The math works with amazing precision. Deal with it, Crank Boy. Your goofy system is entirely useless.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
What did I mean exactly is something that is impossible to be well-understood especially by YOU
I meant to say along with your example if the distance in (mm) from a position on earth you choose to a position on Mars is (N) (mm), where (N) is a natural number and a side of any right-angle triangle, and once you reduce that distance only by one (mm), then that triangle is no more any right angle, FOR SURE
Pure gibberish!
Post by bassam king karzeddin
If you still can't believe what I tought you earlier,
You can't teach anything, BKK. Your mission seems to be to confuse and mislead students to bring us back to the stone age. Or maybe you are just extremely stupid. Or both.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Dare you get your 40 degrees angle in only one triangle, but with ***EXACT*** known sides moron?
Did that yesterday for the 100th time. A triangle with sides 1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length. Deal with it, Crank Boy. Your pathetic little system will never go anywhere. It won't get you to the next village, never mind landing on Mars. Yes, I can see you are insanely jealous. A total failure.


Dan

Download my DC Proof 2.0 freeware at http://www.dcproof.com
Visit my Math Blog at http://www.dcproof.wordpress.com
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-27 08:32:47 UTC
Permalink
Post by Dan Christensen
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Dan Christensen
Post by bassam king karzeddin
It mustn't be used in any serious physical important studies since this would be very dangerous FOR SURE
You mean like landing a probe with near pinpoint accuracy on Mars, so far away that a radio signal take several minutes to arrive there from Earth. Let's see you do that with your goofy little system, Crank Boy. Counting your fingers and toes just won't do it.
You are a typical Academic professional mathematician, Right?
No.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Then keep the technology issues aside for its true makers, since they are certainly better than you in your maths, but you don't know this fact yet
The math works with amazing precision. Deal with it, Crank Boy. Your goofy system is entirely useless.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
What did I mean exactly is something that is impossible to be well-understood especially by YOU
I meant to say along with your example if the distance in (mm) from a position on earth you choose to a position on Mars is (N) (mm), where (N) is a natural number and a side of any right-angle triangle, and once you reduce that distance only by one (mm), then that triangle is no more any right angle, FOR SURE
Pure gibberish!
Post by bassam king karzeddin
If you still can't believe what I tought you earlier,
You can't teach anything, BKK. Your mission seems to be to confuse and mislead students to bring us back to the stone age. Or maybe you are just extremely stupid. Or both.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Dare you get your 40 degrees angle in only one triangle, but with ***EXACT*** known sides moron?
Did that yesterday for the 100th time. A triangle with sides 1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length. Deal with it, Crank Boy. Your pathetic little system will never go anywhere. It won't get you to the next village, never mind landing on Mars. Yes, I can see you are insanely jealous. A total failure.
Dan
Download my DC Proof 2.0 freeware at http://www.dcproof.com
Visit my Math Blog at http://www.dcproof.wordpress.com
So, obviously you DO mean a Right-Angle Triangle with sides *EXISTS*:

[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]

And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number (that aren't real constructible numbers) then it is impossible to construct them *EXACTLY* but can be always expressed numerically with endless digital or rational decimal forms in accordance with your maths but *not mine* Right?

OK, Now your triangle can always be scaled to natural numbers with any approximations you may be able to obtain very accurately, such that by scaling your *SAME TRIANGLE* without any loss of any identity based on similarity as this for your triangle:

10^n, (10^n)*sin(40 degrees) and (10^n)*sin(50 degrees) units of length.

Where (n) is a natural number that corresponds to the number of digits to your approximations such that you have the triangle sides always with integers, Right?

But, I truly have checked the first 10 thousand digits of your endless approximations, where not a single case gave me any right-angle triangle you talk about, and so utterly I had noticed an error that is absolutely increasing drastically without limits to form the required right-angle triangle

So to say, where is your right-angle triangle that you are after it to convince the so little sheep about its true existence? wonder!

Do you mean that RAT is still staying somewhere at your sweet Paradise that stays deep into your minds? Wonder!

Or do you mean frankly that nothing can be achieved truly in mathematics without a very clear betray under the sunlight and everyone's own eyes and minds attention as well to the holiest theorem of Pythagoras? wonder

Is it truly a very smart act or very devilish *CRIME* acts by mythematickers to betray mercilessly also the so innocent human minds and uprising generations for all their lives about those many many too silly issues? Wonders!

Don't mathematics itself and societies you belong to (feed, drinks, clothes) you all to teach them true mathematics instead of cheating them and destroying their brains for day and night with so much of rubbish about your non-existing numbers going to no numbers with your subtle fiction of infinity to this so unbelievable limits? wonders

Aren't you so shameful of your own existence after all those too many elementary proofs brought solely by the *KING* to your attention where you still acting and pretending that you didn't see or hear about them? Wonders

Or do you want seriously more powerful proofs from the *SKY*? No wonder!

Don't you know yet that you are the core seed of all kinds of corruptions you see around? wonder!

So, no doubt that you have to be replaced not far away from now, FOR SURE
BKK
p***@gmail.com
2019-10-27 10:59:38 UTC
Permalink
@Bassam

I don't think you know what's an algebraic number. cos(40) is NOT algebraic.

Read something from time to time.
Eram semper recta
2019-10-27 11:42:36 UTC
Permalink
Post by p***@gmail.com
@Bassam
I don't think you know what's an algebraic number. cos(40) is NOT algebraic.
He didn't say anything like this, you yapping mutt.
Post by p***@gmail.com
Read something from time to time.
Yes, you should read but not the Wikipedia Moronica. Chuckle.
p***@gmail.com
2019-10-27 13:15:15 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
Eram semper recta
2019-10-27 14:27:47 UTC
Permalink
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
Not at all you retarded moron. "real irrational" is meaningless nonsense and you keep forgetting that Bassam's home language is Arabic.
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-27 15:05:38 UTC
Permalink
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),

As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators

All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful

And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs

Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur

BK
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-27 15:13:10 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
Eram semper recta
2019-10-27 15:22:20 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
Algebraic number according to the moronica:

An algebraic number is any complex number that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.

x^2 = 2

This would imply that the *magnitude* sqrt(2) is algebraic, but in order to be algebraic, it must have a measure. sqrt(2) has no measure.

Look,

(sqrt(object))^2 = object

Is "object" an algebraic number then? You can't get away from the definition that I the great John Gabriel bless you with:

***A number describes the measure of a magnitude or size***

LMAO.
Eram semper recta
2019-10-27 15:29:08 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
An algebraic number is any complex number that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.
x^2 = 2
This would imply that the *magnitude* sqrt(2) is algebraic, but in order to be algebraic, it must have a measure. sqrt(2) has no measure.
Look,
(sqrt(object))^2 = object
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude or size***
LMAO.
What you should be thinking now if you had even half a brain, is what are the requirements of "object" in (sqrt(object))^2 = object, so that taking the square root and then the square results in a "number"?

Hint: object must have a **********MEASURE**********

All arithmetic can be done with magnitudes greater than 0 in GEOMETRY. Using algebra, this is NOT possible.


***A number describes the measure of a magnitude***

Write this on your walls, in your sticky notes, say it while you eat, shit and pray until it gets into your thick skulls. Who knows, maybe some day you will reach my level of awareness, you syphilitic morons.
Sergio
2019-10-27 16:45:04 UTC
Permalink
<snip crap>
Post by Eram semper recta
Hint: object must have a **********MEASURE**********
wrong.
Post by Eram semper recta
All arithmetic can be done with magnitudes greater than 0 in GEOMETRY. Using algebra, this is NOT possible.
totally wrong.
Post by Eram semper recta
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude***
wrong again.

numbers are about counting.

no wonder you have such trouble with simple maths
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-27 16:48:17 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
An algebraic number is any complex number that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.
x^2 = 2
This would imply that the *magnitude* sqrt(2) is algebraic, but in order to be algebraic, it must have a measure. sqrt(2) has no measure.
Look,
(sqrt(object))^2 = object
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude or size***
LMAO.
What you should be thinking now if you had even half a brain, is what are the requirements of "object" in (sqrt(object))^2 = object, so that taking the square root and then the square results in a "number"?
Hint: object must have a **********MEASURE**********
All arithmetic can be done with magnitudes greater than 0 in GEOMETRY. Using algebra, this is NOT possible.
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude***
Write this on your walls, in your sticky notes, say it while you eat, shit and pray until it gets into your thick skulls. Who knows, maybe some day you will reach my level of awareness, you syphilitic morons.
If this is for me, then this is my shortest answer and my lonely understanding of any kind of numbers:

*******************************************************************
Numbers do exist exactly, distinctly relative to an arbitrary existing unity distance, and so independently and much before any human definitions existed as distinct existing exact distances, FOR SURE

Copyright, 2019
Bassam Karzeddin
******************************************************

This may be irrelevant to my above definition of number

EXACT: means well described and well understood by any intelligent being (if at all existing) in any real space that a universe exists in

But my doubts, since the (shortest or longest) distances never existing, then we may be living truly in no space at all, where then you may be right since the Pythagorean theorem would never exist either or have any meaning or effect, where then numbers are only rationals, with no meaning for distances as well, or for space perpendicular dimentions or any meaningless physical universe we do sense, but not for sure

I truly tried hard to refute the Pythagorian theorem like many other things, but couldn't due to its absolute validity in absolute space, sure
BKK
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-27 17:18:39 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
An algebraic number is any complex number that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.
x^2 = 2
This would imply that the *magnitude* sqrt(2) is algebraic, but in order to be algebraic, it must have a measure. sqrt(2) has no measure.
Look,
(sqrt(object))^2 = object
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude or size***
LMAO.
What you should be thinking now if you had even half a brain, is what are the requirements of "object" in (sqrt(object))^2 = object, so that taking the square root and then the square results in a "number"?
Hint: object must have a **********MEASURE**********
All arithmetic can be done with magnitudes greater than 0 in GEOMETRY. Using algebra, this is NOT possible.
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude***
Write this on your walls, in your sticky notes, say it while you eat, shit and pray until it gets into your thick skulls. Who knows, maybe some day you will reach my level of awareness, you syphilitic morons.
*******************************************************************
Numbers do exist exactly, distinctly relative to an arbitrary existing unity distance, and so independently and much before any human definitions existed as distinct existing exact distances, FOR SURE
Copyright, 2019
Bassam Karzeddin
******************************************************
This may be irrelevant to my above definition of number
Beliaving that no human has the right to define already existing things much before his own existence, but have the full right to discover them, then I should have said the following:

This may be irrelevant to my above discovery about numbers

BKK
Post by bassam king karzeddin
EXACT: means well described and well understood by any intelligent being (if at all existing) in any real space that a universe exists in
But my doubts, since the (shortest or longest) distances never existing, then we may be living truly in no space at all, where then you may be right since the Pythagorean theorem would never exist either or have any meaning or effect, where then numbers are only rationals, with no meaning for distances as well, or for space perpendicular dimentions or any meaningless physical universe we do sense, but not for sure
I truly tried hard to refute the Pythagorian theorem like many other things, but couldn't due to its absolute validity in absolute space, sure
BKK
p***@gmail.com
2019-10-27 17:37:44 UTC
Permalink
But is sqrt(2) a number or not?

JG is saying it's not, but Bassam says it is. Wonder?

Who is right in this issue??
Eram semper recta
2019-10-27 17:47:13 UTC
Permalink
Post by p***@gmail.com
But is sqrt(2) a number or not?
As I said moron, sqrt(2) is NOT a number. It exists as a size or magnitude, but it has no measure. Bassam's understanding is the same as mine except he does not express it the same way.
Post by p***@gmail.com
JG is saying it's not, but Bassam says it is. Wonder?
Who is right in this issue??
Sergio
2019-10-27 17:54:28 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by p***@gmail.com
But is sqrt(2) a number or not?
As I said moron, sqrt(2) is NOT a number. It exists as a size or magnitude, but it has no measure. Bassam's understanding is the same as mine except he does not express it the same way.
Post by p***@gmail.com
JG is saying it's not, but Bassam says it is. Wonder?
Who is right in this issue??
if sqrt(2) is NOT a number, then (sqrt(2))^2 is not a number either

how could you make"not a number" into a "number" by simply squaring it ?



(birdbrain not a number) * (birdbrain not a number) =

(birdbrain^2 a number)


you guys should stay off the chems
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-27 19:02:21 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by p***@gmail.com
But is sqrt(2) a number or not?
As I said moron, sqrt(2) is NOT a number. It exists as a size or magnitude, but it has no measure. Bassam's understanding is the same as mine except he does not express it the same way.
Post by p***@gmail.com
JG is saying it's not, but Bassam says it is. Wonder?
Who is right in this issue??
Sqrt(2) isn't any rational number, but miraculously exists so independently from them, as a diagonal distance of the existing square with unity side distance,
But the fundamental mistake that was committed by the greatest mathematicians when they turned all rational numbers to their claimed rational equivalence (by adopting something fictional like infinity), where then they applied this to existing rational distance numbers and irrationals like sqrt(2), where they invented this illegal math by convincing people that (1 = 0.999...), and further continued the silly story by inventing the real cube root of two, and much farther applied it on pi, since they couldn't recognize that pi or equivalently the circle actually was a total mind illusion, since pi was truly for regular existing polygons

So, it may be fair to say that wasn't intended cheating but maybe also complete delusions of the circle itself that has deceived all the human's minds about its unreal existence

And what are those regular existing polygons nothing but existing repeated triangles symmetrically at the core, where all their rules are hidden in
triangles properties, were simply not any assumed regular polygon with a number of sides can exist, but only a few exist theretically even much before we know about them

for instance, the assumed seventh ribbed regular polygon is impossible existence, so why do people think it is not applicable on circle also? wonder!

We truly can't create mathematical objects except by cheat (we call it endless approximations), but we may only discover them, the same principle is applicable for existing numbers as already existing objects much before we discover them, but definitely we can't creat them by any means or any human definitions

But the whole story of discovering true existing numbers was long ago and since thousands of years completely finished, especially that we had been almost librated from the most delusional object like a circle or its no existing number

In short, given any existing length with an exact existing distance relative to any arbitrary existing unity distance, then it is impossible to make the circle *exactly* from that length, but it is always possible to make regular existing polygons from that length that seems with no different from the circle to a layperson, theoretically and physically as well, FOR SURE
BKK
Eram semper recta
2019-10-27 20:29:17 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by p***@gmail.com
But is sqrt(2) a number or not?
As I said moron, sqrt(2) is NOT a number. It exists as a size or magnitude, but it has no measure. Bassam's understanding is the same as mine except he does not express it the same way.
Post by p***@gmail.com
JG is saying it's not, but Bassam says it is. Wonder?
Who is right in this issue??
Sqrt(2) isn't any rational number, but miraculously exists so independently from them, as a diagonal distance of the existing square with unity side distance,
Unity has nothing to do with it. Any right-angled isoceles triangle is the symptom of the magnitude known as sqrt(2) and the assumed measure is one of the legs, i.e. the unit.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But the fundamental mistake that was committed by the greatest mathematicians when they turned all rational numbers to their claimed rational equivalence (by adopting something fictional like infinity), where then they applied this to existing rational distance numbers and irrationals like sqrt(2), where they invented this illegal math by convincing people that (1 = 0.999...), and further continued the silly story by inventing the real cube root of two, and much farther applied it on pi, since they couldn't recognize that pi or equivalently the circle actually was a total mind illusion, since pi was truly for regular existing polygons
So, it may be fair to say that wasn't intended cheating but maybe also complete delusions of the circle itself that has deceived all the human's minds about its unreal existence
And what are those regular existing polygons nothing but existing repeated triangles symmetrically at the core, where all their rules are hidden in
triangles properties, were simply not any assumed regular polygon with a number of sides can exist, but only a few exist theretically even much before we know about them
for instance, the assumed seventh ribbed regular polygon is impossible existence, so why do people think it is not applicable on circle also? wonder!
We truly can't create mathematical objects except by cheat (we call it endless approximations), but we may only discover them, the same principle is applicable for existing numbers as already existing objects much before we discover them, but definitely we can't creat them by any means or any human definitions
But the whole story of discovering true existing numbers was long ago and since thousands of years completely finished, especially that we had been almost librated from the most delusional object like a circle or its no existing number
In short, given any existing length with an exact existing distance relative to any arbitrary existing unity distance, then it is impossible to make the circle *exactly* from that length, but it is always possible to make regular existing polygons from that length that seems with no different from the circle to a layperson, theoretically and physically as well, FOR SURE
BKK
Python
2019-10-27 19:55:39 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by p***@gmail.com
But is sqrt(2) a number or not?
As I said moron, sqrt(2) is NOT a number. It exists as a size or magnitude, but it has no measure. Bassam's understanding is the same as mine except he does not express it the same way.
It definitely crystal clear, you cranks Professort Wofgang Mueckenheim
from Hochschule Augsburg, Bassam Karzeddin from the deep end of his own
ass and you, John Gabriel, from the fame of having been famous for being
wrong an almost everything share a lot of "knowledge" except that you
"do not express it the same way".

For Wolfgang Mueckenheim nothing exist in math if not at some physical
coordinate in the Universe and math is basically physics, anyway pi
exists but no bijection between infinite sets exist (even if his own
shitty book implies otherwise);

For Bassam Demented Karzeddin, neither pi does exist nor any circle,
anyway sqrt(2) does;

For John Gabriel pi and circles exists, and math is not about physcial
coordinates.

As all can see you agree but are just "expressing thing the same way"
:-D

Nevertheless all of you are in line for misunderstanding HIGHLY most
basic issues: logic, Set Theory, analysis, Cauchy sequences, Dedekind
Cuts, etc.
Eram semper recta
2019-10-27 20:26:54 UTC
Permalink
Post by Python
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by p***@gmail.com
But is sqrt(2) a number or not?
As I said moron, sqrt(2) is NOT a number. It exists as a size or magnitude, but it has no measure. Bassam's understanding is the same as mine except he does not express it the same way.
It definitely crystal clear, you cranks Professort Wofgang Mueckenheim
from Hochschule Augsburg, Bassam Karzeddin from the deep end of his own
ass and you, John Gabriel, from the fame of having been famous for being
wrong an almost everything share a lot of "knowledge" except that you
"do not express it the same way".
My way is the correct way. WM and Bassam have a far better understanding than the rest of you.
Post by Python
For Wolfgang Mueckenheim nothing exist in math if not at some physical
coordinate in the Universe and math is basically physics, anyway pi
exists but no bijection between infinite sets exist (even if his own
shitty book implies otherwise);
Yeah. WM tends to see math from physics which is wrong. One should see physics from math which is about abstractions.
Post by Python
For Bassam Demented Karzeddin, neither pi does exist nor any circle,
anyway sqrt(2) does;
For John Gabriel pi and circles exists, and math is not about physcial
coordinates.
You got this right.
Post by Python
As all can see you agree but are just "expressing thing the same way"
:-D
Nevertheless all of you are in line for misunderstanding HIGHLY most
basic issues: logic, Set Theory, analysis, Cauchy sequences, Dedekind
Cuts, etc.
Oh dear. Can you do anything besides writing long, cranky rants? What you meant to say is that all of us reject your theory wrt the bullshit of "real number", etc.

It's not just us, but there are many others who find problems with your syphilitic ideas. Shouldn't this be a red flag for you given that you trust the opinion of the majority over your own thoughts?

Don't you realise what a lesser being you are when you determine the accuracy of your ideas by comparing to the mainstream?

Facts are not determined by majority vote. You Jean Piere Messager should try to get this into your thick skull.
Sergio
2019-10-27 23:11:43 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Python
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by p***@gmail.com
But is sqrt(2) a number or not?
As I said moron, sqrt(2) is NOT a number. It exists as a size or magnitude, but it has no measure. Bassam's understanding is the same as mine except he does not express it the same way.
It definitely crystal clear, you cranks Professort Wofgang Mueckenheim
from Hochschule Augsburg, Bassam Karzeddin from the deep end of his own
ass and you, John Gabriel, from the fame of having been famous for being
wrong an almost everything share a lot of "knowledge" except that you
"do not express it the same way".
My way is the correct way.
no, Eram semper rectum, you troll, you way is always wrong.



<snip troll poop>
Me
2019-10-28 00:42:55 UTC
Permalink
As all can see you agree but are just [not?] "expressing thing the same way"
:-D
Eram semper recta
2019-10-27 17:45:46 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
An algebraic number is any complex number that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.
x^2 = 2
This would imply that the *magnitude* sqrt(2) is algebraic, but in order to be algebraic, it must have a measure. sqrt(2) has no measure.
Look,
(sqrt(object))^2 = object
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude or size***
LMAO.
What you should be thinking now if you had even half a brain, is what are the requirements of "object" in (sqrt(object))^2 = object, so that taking the square root and then the square results in a "number"?
Hint: object must have a **********MEASURE**********
All arithmetic can be done with magnitudes greater than 0 in GEOMETRY. Using algebra, this is NOT possible.
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude***
Write this on your walls, in your sticky notes, say it while you eat, shit and pray until it gets into your thick skulls. Who knows, maybe some day you will reach my level of awareness, you syphilitic morons.
*******************************************************************
Numbers do exist exactly, distinctly relative to an arbitrary existing unity distance, and so independently and much before any human definitions existed as distinct existing exact distances, FOR SURE
Not meant for you.

But your understanding of number is correct then!

And what does it mean "existing distinctly relative to an arbitrary unit"?

It means:

***A number describes the measure of a magnitude".

:-)))
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Copyright, 2019
Bassam Karzeddin
******************************************************
This may be irrelevant to my above definition of number
EXACT: means well described and well understood by any intelligent being (if at all existing) in any real space that a universe exists in
But my doubts, since the (shortest or longest) distances never existing, then we may be living truly in no space at all, where then you may be right since the Pythagorean theorem would never exist either or have any meaning or effect, where then numbers are only rationals, with no meaning for distances as well, or for space perpendicular dimentions or any meaningless physical universe we do sense, but not for sure
I truly tried hard to refute the Pythagorian theorem like many other things, but couldn't due to its absolute validity in absolute space, sure
BKK
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-28 08:57:33 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
An algebraic number is any complex number that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.
x^2 = 2
This would imply that the *magnitude* sqrt(2) is algebraic, but in order to be algebraic, it must have a measure. sqrt(2) has no measure.
Look,
(sqrt(object))^2 = object
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude or size***
LMAO.
What you should be thinking now if you had even half a brain, is what are the requirements of "object" in (sqrt(object))^2 = object, so that taking the square root and then the square results in a "number"?
Hint: object must have a **********MEASURE**********
All arithmetic can be done with magnitudes greater than 0 in GEOMETRY. Using algebra, this is NOT possible.
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude***
Write this on your walls, in your sticky notes, say it while you eat, shit and pray until it gets into your thick skulls. Who knows, maybe some day you will reach my level of awareness, you syphilitic morons.
*******************************************************************
Numbers do exist exactly, distinctly relative to an arbitrary existing unity distance, and so independently and much before any human definitions existed as distinct existing exact distances, FOR SURE
Not meant for you.
But your understanding of number is correct then!
And what does it mean "existing distinctly relative to an arbitrary unit"?
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude".
Here in Euclide definition, I think or it seems to me the word measure is meant for linear measuremens, (as if one is haveing a tap where only rational numbers are marked on that tape, such that any distance of a visible length must corrospond by force to a rational number even to very high degree of accuracy) which is visibly, and practically true, for sure

But there is also the similar angular measurements that visibly and practically seems identical to lineae measurements except that it goes too deep into the endless space between any two rational numbers no matter however seemingly small the distance between them where we discover another irrational and exact existing distances between them were no existing rational accuracy can exactly measure and were originally existing due to the undeniable Pythagorean theorem

What makes the diagonal of a rectangle of sides (3, 4) unit distances as exactly 5 unit rational number distance is the same that makes the irrational sqrt(2) as a diagonal of a square with unity side

Since in the first case, a triangle with sides (3, 4, 5) exists theoretically and physically as well, whereas in the second case we have two unity sides distances are perpendicular by the existing angle of PI/2, hence diagonal is existing and exact, where if we make a square from its length-distance it would be an exact area of two squares each with unity side distance

So to say, we need another tap like where also those newly discovered distances should be added or marked on that rational tape (at least symbolically)

BKK
Post by Eram semper recta
:-)))
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Copyright, 2019
Bassam Karzeddin
******************************************************
This may be irrelevant to my above definition of number
EXACT: means well described and well understood by any intelligent being (if at all existing) in any real space that a universe exists in
But my doubts, since the (shortest or longest) distances never existing, then we may be living truly in no space at all, where then you may be right since the Pythagorean theorem would never exist either or have any meaning or effect, where then numbers are only rationals, with no meaning for distances as well, or for space perpendicular dimentions or any meaningless physical universe we do sense, but not for sure
I truly tried hard to refute the Pythagorian theorem like many other things, but couldn't due to its absolute validity in absolute space, sure
BKK
Eram semper recta
2019-10-28 11:22:05 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
An algebraic number is any complex number that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.
x^2 = 2
This would imply that the *magnitude* sqrt(2) is algebraic, but in order to be algebraic, it must have a measure. sqrt(2) has no measure.
Look,
(sqrt(object))^2 = object
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude or size***
LMAO.
What you should be thinking now if you had even half a brain, is what are the requirements of "object" in (sqrt(object))^2 = object, so that taking the square root and then the square results in a "number"?
Hint: object must have a **********MEASURE**********
All arithmetic can be done with magnitudes greater than 0 in GEOMETRY. Using algebra, this is NOT possible.
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude***
Write this on your walls, in your sticky notes, say it while you eat, shit and pray until it gets into your thick skulls. Who knows, maybe some day you will reach my level of awareness, you syphilitic morons.
*******************************************************************
Numbers do exist exactly, distinctly relative to an arbitrary existing unity distance, and so independently and much before any human definitions existed as distinct existing exact distances, FOR SURE
Not meant for you.
But your understanding of number is correct then!
And what does it mean "existing distinctly relative to an arbitrary unit"?
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude".
Here in Euclide definition, I think or it seems to me the word measure is meant for linear measuremens, (as if one is haveing a tap where only rational numbers are marked on that tape, such that any distance of a visible length must corrospond by force to a rational number even to very high degree of accuracy) which is visibly, and practically true, for sure
Correct. It is used for distance, but the principle applies to everything else: area, volume, mass, etc.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But there is also the similar angular measurements that visibly and practically seems identical to lineae measurements except that it goes too deep into the endless space between any two rational numbers
True. But this does not mean those angles do not exist, RATHER their measure is not possible or does not exist.

Every angles is possible, but the measure of every angle is not possible.

There are no other numbers besides the rational numbers.

Pis is a ratio of magnitudes c:d where one of the following is true:

1. Both c and d have no measure
2. c has measure but d does not
3. d has measure but c does not
Post by bassam king karzeddin
no matter however seemingly small the distance between them where we discover another irrational and exact existing distances between them were no existing rational accuracy can exactly measure and were originally existing due to the undeniable Pythagorean theorem
What makes the diagonal of a rectangle of sides (3, 4) unit distances as exactly 5 unit rational number distance is the same that makes the irrational sqrt(2) as a diagonal of a square with unity side
Since in the first case, a triangle with sides (3, 4, 5) exists theoretically and physically as well, whereas in the second case we have two unity sides distances are perpendicular by the existing angle of PI/2, hence diagonal is existing and exact, where if we make a square from its length-distance it would be an exact area of two squares each with unity side distance
So to say, we need another tap like where also those newly discovered distances should be added or marked on that rational tape (at least symbolically)
BKK
Post by Eram semper recta
:-)))
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Copyright, 2019
Bassam Karzeddin
******************************************************
This may be irrelevant to my above definition of number
EXACT: means well described and well understood by any intelligent being (if at all existing) in any real space that a universe exists in
But my doubts, since the (shortest or longest) distances never existing, then we may be living truly in no space at all, where then you may be right since the Pythagorean theorem would never exist either or have any meaning or effect, where then numbers are only rationals, with no meaning for distances as well, or for space perpendicular dimentions or any meaningless physical universe we do sense, but not for sure
I truly tried hard to refute the Pythagorian theorem like many other things, but couldn't due to its absolute validity in absolute space, sure
BKK
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-28 12:25:04 UTC
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Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
An algebraic number is any complex number that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.
x^2 = 2
This would imply that the *magnitude* sqrt(2) is algebraic, but in order to be algebraic, it must have a measure. sqrt(2) has no measure.
Look,
(sqrt(object))^2 = object
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude or size***
LMAO.
What you should be thinking now if you had even half a brain, is what are the requirements of "object" in (sqrt(object))^2 = object, so that taking the square root and then the square results in a "number"?
Hint: object must have a **********MEASURE**********
All arithmetic can be done with magnitudes greater than 0 in GEOMETRY. Using algebra, this is NOT possible.
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude***
Write this on your walls, in your sticky notes, say it while you eat, shit and pray until it gets into your thick skulls. Who knows, maybe some day you will reach my level of awareness, you syphilitic morons.
*******************************************************************
Numbers do exist exactly, distinctly relative to an arbitrary existing unity distance, and so independently and much before any human definitions existed as distinct existing exact distances, FOR SURE
Not meant for you.
But your understanding of number is correct then!
And what does it mean "existing distinctly relative to an arbitrary unit"?
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude".
Here in Euclide definition, I think or it seems to me the word measure is meant for linear measuremens, (as if one is haveing a tap where only rational numbers are marked on that tape, such that any distance of a visible length must corrospond by force to a rational number even to very high degree of accuracy) which is visibly, and practically true, for sure
Correct. It is used for distance, but the principle applies to everything else: area, volume, mass, etc.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But there is also the similar angular measurements that visibly and practically seems identical to lineae measurements except that it goes too deep into the endless space between any two rational numbers
True. But this does not mean those angles do not exist, RATHER their measure is not possible or does not exist.
Then let us forget momentary about their measure and try instead to discover them exactly and well-describe them in a comprehincible method for human minds
Post by Eram semper recta
Every angles is possible, but the measure of every angle is not possible.
How can this angle for example (Pi/7) be a possible occurrence in any existing triangle with exactly known sides? wonder!

If a new theorem in geometry to be discovered yet that can DISCOVER and explain it, then it would be the second most important revolution in understanding the real numbers and angels as well after that first OLD revolution happened from the Pythagorean theorem
Post by Eram semper recta
There are no other numbers besides the rational numbers.
The simple existing angle (pi/4 = 45 Degrees) does exist in so many triangles, where it is impossible for any triangle to have all its sides in rational numbers only, same like for the angels (pi/6 = 30 Degrees), and so many other angels as well

BKK
Post by Eram semper recta
1. Both c and d have no measure
2. c has measure but d does not
3. d has measure but c does not
Post by bassam king karzeddin
no matter however seemingly small the distance between them where we discover another irrational and exact existing distances between them were no existing rational accuracy can exactly measure and were originally existing due to the undeniable Pythagorean theorem
What makes the diagonal of a rectangle of sides (3, 4) unit distances as exactly 5 unit rational number distance is the same that makes the irrational sqrt(2) as a diagonal of a square with unity side
Since in the first case, a triangle with sides (3, 4, 5) exists theoretically and physically as well, whereas in the second case we have two unity sides distances are perpendicular by the existing angle of PI/2, hence diagonal is existing and exact, where if we make a square from its length-distance it would be an exact area of two squares each with unity side distance
So to say, we need another tap like where also those newly discovered distances should be added or marked on that rational tape (at least symbolically)
BKK
Post by Eram semper recta
:-)))
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Copyright, 2019
Bassam Karzeddin
******************************************************
This may be irrelevant to my above definition of number
EXACT: means well described and well understood by any intelligent being (if at all existing) in any real space that a universe exists in
But my doubts, since the (shortest or longest) distances never existing, then we may be living truly in no space at all, where then you may be right since the Pythagorean theorem would never exist either or have any meaning or effect, where then numbers are only rationals, with no meaning for distances as well, or for space perpendicular dimentions or any meaningless physical universe we do sense, but not for sure
I truly tried hard to refute the Pythagorian theorem like many other things, but couldn't due to its absolute validity in absolute space, sure
BKK
Eram semper recta
2019-10-28 12:56:12 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
An algebraic number is any complex number that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.
x^2 = 2
This would imply that the *magnitude* sqrt(2) is algebraic, but in order to be algebraic, it must have a measure. sqrt(2) has no measure.
Look,
(sqrt(object))^2 = object
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude or size***
LMAO.
What you should be thinking now if you had even half a brain, is what are the requirements of "object" in (sqrt(object))^2 = object, so that taking the square root and then the square results in a "number"?
Hint: object must have a **********MEASURE**********
All arithmetic can be done with magnitudes greater than 0 in GEOMETRY. Using algebra, this is NOT possible.
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude***
Write this on your walls, in your sticky notes, say it while you eat, shit and pray until it gets into your thick skulls. Who knows, maybe some day you will reach my level of awareness, you syphilitic morons.
*******************************************************************
Numbers do exist exactly, distinctly relative to an arbitrary existing unity distance, and so independently and much before any human definitions existed as distinct existing exact distances, FOR SURE
Not meant for you.
But your understanding of number is correct then!
And what does it mean "existing distinctly relative to an arbitrary unit"?
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude".
Here in Euclide definition, I think or it seems to me the word measure is meant for linear measuremens, (as if one is haveing a tap where only rational numbers are marked on that tape, such that any distance of a visible length must corrospond by force to a rational number even to very high degree of accuracy) which is visibly, and practically true, for sure
Correct. It is used for distance, but the principle applies to everything else: area, volume, mass, etc.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But there is also the similar angular measurements that visibly and practically seems identical to lineae measurements except that it goes too deep into the endless space between any two rational numbers
True. But this does not mean those angles do not exist, RATHER their measure is not possible or does not exist.
Then let us forget momentary about their measure and try instead to discover them exactly and well-describe them in a comprehincible method for human minds
Post by Eram semper recta
Every angle is possible, but the measure of every angle is not possible.
How can this angle for example (Pi/7) be a possible occurrence in any existing triangle with exactly known sides? wonder!
You don't have to construct any triangle at all because the original angle is based on the CIRCLE and the arc on which it is subtended. The angle came long before the triangle. It follows on the heels of the first 3 Requirements of Euclid:

1. A shortest distance exists between any two points.
2. Said distance in (1) can be extended or shortened as desired.
3. There is a distance that is formed such that from any location along this distance, the distance to a given point called a centre, is the same straight line AND if this straight line is extended, it will meet another location along the same distance. This distance is called a CIRCLE. There is no other distance described by the same requirement.

Now, you can very easily define an angle as the result of two lines intersecting and call the point of intersection the VERTEX.

Next, you need a means of identifying angles, that is, a NAME. The only UNIQUE way to do this, is to call the angles by the RATIO of the arc to the RADIUS (shortest distance from centre to any part of the periphery).

By so doing, you have created a unique name for the distance of each angle.

But you haven't measured any of these angles UNTIL you choose a standard measure. The Greeks chose the RIGHT angle and I describe how you can derive this also from the the PREVIOUS requirements. My book has more:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1CIul68phzuOe6JZwsCuBuXUR8X-AkgEO/view
Post by bassam king karzeddin
If a new theorem in geometry to be discovered yet that can DISCOVER and explain it, then it would be the second most important revolution in understanding the real numbers and angels as well after that first OLD revolution happened from the Pythagorean theorem
Post by Eram semper recta
There are no other numbers besides the rational numbers.
The simple existing angle (pi/4 = 45 Degrees) does exist in so many triangles,
THE DERIVATION OF ANGLES HAVE NOTHING TO DO WITH TRIANGLES!!!!!!!!
Post by bassam king karzeddin
where it is impossible for any triangle to have all its sides in rational numbers only, same like for the angels (pi/6 = 30 Degrees), and so many other angels as well
BKK
Post by Eram semper recta
1. Both c and d have no measure
2. c has measure but d does not
3. d has measure but c does not
Post by bassam king karzeddin
no matter however seemingly small the distance between them where we discover another irrational and exact existing distances between them were no existing rational accuracy can exactly measure and were originally existing due to the undeniable Pythagorean theorem
What makes the diagonal of a rectangle of sides (3, 4) unit distances as exactly 5 unit rational number distance is the same that makes the irrational sqrt(2) as a diagonal of a square with unity side
Since in the first case, a triangle with sides (3, 4, 5) exists theoretically and physically as well, whereas in the second case we have two unity sides distances are perpendicular by the existing angle of PI/2, hence diagonal is existing and exact, where if we make a square from its length-distance it would be an exact area of two squares each with unity side distance
So to say, we need another tap like where also those newly discovered distances should be added or marked on that rational tape (at least symbolically)
BKK
Post by Eram semper recta
:-)))
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Copyright, 2019
Bassam Karzeddin
******************************************************
This may be irrelevant to my above definition of number
EXACT: means well described and well understood by any intelligent being (if at all existing) in any real space that a universe exists in
But my doubts, since the (shortest or longest) distances never existing, then we may be living truly in no space at all, where then you may be right since the Pythagorean theorem would never exist either or have any meaning or effect, where then numbers are only rationals, with no meaning for distances as well, or for space perpendicular dimentions or any meaningless physical universe we do sense, but not for sure
I truly tried hard to refute the Pythagorian theorem like many other things, but couldn't due to its absolute validity in absolute space, sure
BKK
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-28 16:20:54 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
An algebraic number is any complex number that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.
x^2 = 2
This would imply that the *magnitude* sqrt(2) is algebraic, but in order to be algebraic, it must have a measure. sqrt(2) has no measure.
Look,
(sqrt(object))^2 = object
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude or size***
LMAO.
What you should be thinking now if you had even half a brain, is what are the requirements of "object" in (sqrt(object))^2 = object, so that taking the square root and then the square results in a "number"?
Hint: object must have a **********MEASURE**********
All arithmetic can be done with magnitudes greater than 0 in GEOMETRY. Using algebra, this is NOT possible.
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude***
Write this on your walls, in your sticky notes, say it while you eat, shit and pray until it gets into your thick skulls. Who knows, maybe some day you will reach my level of awareness, you syphilitic morons.
*******************************************************************
Numbers do exist exactly, distinctly relative to an arbitrary existing unity distance, and so independently and much before any human definitions existed as distinct existing exact distances, FOR SURE
Not meant for you.
But your understanding of number is correct then!
And what does it mean "existing distinctly relative to an arbitrary unit"?
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude".
Here in Euclide definition, I think or it seems to me the word measure is meant for linear measuremens, (as if one is haveing a tap where only rational numbers are marked on that tape, such that any distance of a visible length must corrospond by force to a rational number even to very high degree of accuracy) which is visibly, and practically true, for sure
Correct. It is used for distance, but the principle applies to everything else: area, volume, mass, etc.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But there is also the similar angular measurements that visibly and practically seems identical to lineae measurements except that it goes too deep into the endless space between any two rational numbers
True. But this does not mean those angles do not exist, RATHER their measure is not possible or does not exist.
Then let us forget momentary about their measure and try instead to discover them exactly and well-describe them in a comprehincible method for human minds
Post by Eram semper recta
Every angle is possible, but the measure of every angle is not possible.
How can this angle for example (Pi/7) be a possible occurrence in any existing triangle with exactly known sides? wonder!
1. A shortest distance exists between any two points.
Considering two *distinct* locations or points on a circle, then how short is the distance can be?

Of course, I don't mean the arc distance since it is not the shortest distance between the two points, nor can be nothing like zero (no number) in mathematics

Where Pi is an existing angle that represents exactly half the full revolution around another location (centre) on a plan for a point travelling in a constant unity distance from the centre around that location as the centre of that resulting shape (whatever it is)

Taking into consideration that real existing numbers are in fact discrete numbers and not like the mainstream wrongly think as real continuous numbers, since any truly existing number can't be surrounded by any two real numbers where one is the greatest but less than that given number and the other is the least but greater than that given same number
Post by Eram semper recta
2. Said distance in (1) can be extended or shortened as desired.
3. There is a distance that is formed such that from any location along this distance, the distance to a given point called a centre, is the same straight line AND if this straight line is extended, it will meet another location along the same distance. This distance is called a CIRCLE. There is no other distance described by the same requirement.
Now, you can very easily define an angle as the result of two lines intersecting and call the point of intersection the VERTEX.
Next, you need a means of identifying angles, that is, a NAME. The only UNIQUE way to do this, is to call the angles by the RATIO of the arc to the RADIUS (shortest distance from centre to any part of the periphery).
By so doing, you have created a unique name for the distance of each angle.
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1CIul68phzuOe6JZwsCuBuXUR8X-AkgEO/view
Post by bassam king karzeddin
If a new theorem in geometry to be discovered yet that can DISCOVER and explain it, then it would be the second most important revolution in understanding the real numbers and angels as well after that first OLD revolution happened from the Pythagorean theorem
Post by Eram semper recta
There are no other numbers besides the rational numbers.
The simple existing angle (pi/4 = 45 Degrees) does exist in so many triangles,
THE DERIVATION OF ANGLES HAVE NOTHING TO DO WITH TRIANGLES!!!!!!!!
But every existing triangle must have three existing angels that add up to (pi = 180 Degrees, I think this from older and Greek geometry as well), Where triangles on a surface of a sphere aren't triangles, but a very big mind cheat to fabricate the Non-Euclidian Geometry, since still the true triangle for three points on a surface of a sphere is the same triangle that exists on the same plan that any three non-coplanar points lie (despite they are located on a sphere surface)
BKK
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
where it is impossible for any triangle to have all its sides in rational numbers only, same like for the angels (pi/6 = 30 Degrees), and so many other angels as well
BKK
Post by Eram semper recta
1. Both c and d have no measure
2. c has measure but d does not
3. d has measure but c does not
Post by bassam king karzeddin
no matter however seemingly small the distance between them where we discover another irrational and exact existing distances between them were no existing rational accuracy can exactly measure and were originally existing due to the undeniable Pythagorean theorem
What makes the diagonal of a rectangle of sides (3, 4) unit distances as exactly 5 unit rational number distance is the same that makes the irrational sqrt(2) as a diagonal of a square with unity side
Since in the first case, a triangle with sides (3, 4, 5) exists theoretically and physically as well, whereas in the second case we have two unity sides distances are perpendicular by the existing angle of PI/2, hence diagonal is existing and exact, where if we make a square from its length-distance it would be an exact area of two squares each with unity side distance
So to say, we need another tap like where also those newly discovered distances should be added or marked on that rational tape (at least symbolically)
BKK
Post by Eram semper recta
:-)))
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Copyright, 2019
Bassam Karzeddin
******************************************************
This may be irrelevant to my above definition of number
EXACT: means well described and well understood by any intelligent being (if at all existing) in any real space that a universe exists in
But my doubts, since the (shortest or longest) distances never existing, then we may be living truly in no space at all, where then you may be right since the Pythagorean theorem would never exist either or have any meaning or effect, where then numbers are only rationals, with no meaning for distances as well, or for space perpendicular dimentions or any meaningless physical universe we do sense, but not for sure
I truly tried hard to refute the Pythagorian theorem like many other things, but couldn't due to its absolute validity in absolute space, sure
BKK
Eram semper recta
2019-10-28 17:05:18 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
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Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
An algebraic number is any complex number that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.
x^2 = 2
This would imply that the *magnitude* sqrt(2) is algebraic, but in order to be algebraic, it must have a measure. sqrt(2) has no measure.
Look,
(sqrt(object))^2 = object
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude or size***
LMAO.
What you should be thinking now if you had even half a brain, is what are the requirements of "object" in (sqrt(object))^2 = object, so that taking the square root and then the square results in a "number"?
Hint: object must have a **********MEASURE**********
All arithmetic can be done with magnitudes greater than 0 in GEOMETRY. Using algebra, this is NOT possible.
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude***
Write this on your walls, in your sticky notes, say it while you eat, shit and pray until it gets into your thick skulls. Who knows, maybe some day you will reach my level of awareness, you syphilitic morons.
*******************************************************************
Numbers do exist exactly, distinctly relative to an arbitrary existing unity distance, and so independently and much before any human definitions existed as distinct existing exact distances, FOR SURE
Not meant for you.
But your understanding of number is correct then!
And what does it mean "existing distinctly relative to an arbitrary unit"?
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude".
Here in Euclide definition, I think or it seems to me the word measure is meant for linear measuremens, (as if one is haveing a tap where only rational numbers are marked on that tape, such that any distance of a visible length must corrospond by force to a rational number even to very high degree of accuracy) which is visibly, and practically true, for sure
Correct. It is used for distance, but the principle applies to everything else: area, volume, mass, etc.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But there is also the similar angular measurements that visibly and practically seems identical to lineae measurements except that it goes too deep into the endless space between any two rational numbers
True. But this does not mean those angles do not exist, RATHER their measure is not possible or does not exist.
Then let us forget momentary about their measure and try instead to discover them exactly and well-describe them in a comprehincible method for human minds
Post by Eram semper recta
Every angle is possible, but the measure of every angle is not possible.
How can this angle for example (Pi/7) be a possible occurrence in any existing triangle with exactly known sides? wonder!
1. A shortest distance exists between any two points.
Considering two *distinct* locations or points on a circle, then how short is the distance can be?
The shortest distance is always a straight line. I'm not sure what you are asking because I think this is obvious.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Of course, I don't mean the arc distance since it is not the shortest distance between the two points, nor can be nothing like zero (no number) in mathematics
I wasn't talking about the arc being the shortest distance on a circle, but it is always the shortest distance on a sphere. Circle =/= sphere. :-)))
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Where Pi is an existing angle
Pi is NEVER an angle, only the name given to the angle which is known as a straight line.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
that represents exactly half the full revolution around another location (centre) on a plan for a point travelling in a constant unity distance from the centre around that location as the centre of that resulting shape (whatever it is)
Taking into consideration that real existing numbers are in fact discrete numbers and not like the mainstream wrongly think as real continuous numbers, since any truly existing number can't be surrounded by any two real numbers where one is the greatest but less than that given number and the other is the least but greater than that given same number
Post by Eram semper recta
2. Said distance in (1) can be extended or shortened as desired.
3. There is a distance that is formed such that from any location along this distance, the distance to a given point called a centre, is the same straight line AND if this straight line is extended, it will meet another location along the same distance. This distance is called a CIRCLE. There is no other distance described by the same requirement.
Now, you can very easily define an angle as the result of two lines intersecting and call the point of intersection the VERTEX.
Next, you need a means of identifying angles, that is, a NAME. The only UNIQUE way to do this, is to call the angles by the RATIO of the arc to the RADIUS (shortest distance from centre to any part of the periphery).
By so doing, you have created a unique name for the distance of each angle.
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1CIul68phzuOe6JZwsCuBuXUR8X-AkgEO/view
Post by bassam king karzeddin
If a new theorem in geometry to be discovered yet that can DISCOVER and explain it, then it would be the second most important revolution in understanding the real numbers and angels as well after that first OLD revolution happened from the Pythagorean theorem
Post by Eram semper recta
There are no other numbers besides the rational numbers.
The simple existing angle (pi/4 = 45 Degrees) does exist in so many triangles,
THE DERIVATION OF ANGLES HAVE NOTHING TO DO WITH TRIANGLES!!!!!!!!
But every existing triangle must have three existing angels that add up to (pi = 180 Degrees, I think this from older and Greek geometry as well), Where triangles on a surface of a sphere aren't triangles, but a very big mind cheat to fabricate the Non-Euclidian Geometry, since still the true triangle for three points on a surface of a sphere is the same triangle that exists on the same plan that any three non-coplanar points lie (despite they are located on a sphere surface)
BKK
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
where it is impossible for any triangle to have all its sides in rational numbers only, same like for the angels (pi/6 = 30 Degrees), and so many other angels as well
BKK
Post by Eram semper recta
1. Both c and d have no measure
2. c has measure but d does not
3. d has measure but c does not
Post by bassam king karzeddin
no matter however seemingly small the distance between them where we discover another irrational and exact existing distances between them were no existing rational accuracy can exactly measure and were originally existing due to the undeniable Pythagorean theorem
What makes the diagonal of a rectangle of sides (3, 4) unit distances as exactly 5 unit rational number distance is the same that makes the irrational sqrt(2) as a diagonal of a square with unity side
Since in the first case, a triangle with sides (3, 4, 5) exists theoretically and physically as well, whereas in the second case we have two unity sides distances are perpendicular by the existing angle of PI/2, hence diagonal is existing and exact, where if we make a square from its length-distance it would be an exact area of two squares each with unity side distance
So to say, we need another tap like where also those newly discovered distances should be added or marked on that rational tape (at least symbolically)
BKK
Post by Eram semper recta
:-)))
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Copyright, 2019
Bassam Karzeddin
******************************************************
This may be irrelevant to my above definition of number
EXACT: means well described and well understood by any intelligent being (if at all existing) in any real space that a universe exists in
But my doubts, since the (shortest or longest) distances never existing, then we may be living truly in no space at all, where then you may be right since the Pythagorean theorem would never exist either or have any meaning or effect, where then numbers are only rationals, with no meaning for distances as well, or for space perpendicular dimentions or any meaningless physical universe we do sense, but not for sure
I truly tried hard to refute the Pythagorian theorem like many other things, but couldn't due to its absolute validity in absolute space, sure
BKK
Sergio
2019-10-28 17:40:20 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
An algebraic number is any complex number that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.
x^2 = 2
This would imply that the *magnitude* sqrt(2) is algebraic, but in order to be algebraic, it must have a measure. sqrt(2) has no measure.
Look,
(sqrt(object))^2 = object
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude or size***
LMAO.
What you should be thinking now if you had even half a brain, is what are the requirements of "object" in (sqrt(object))^2 = object, so that taking the square root and then the square results in a "number"?
Hint: object must have a **********MEASURE**********
All arithmetic can be done with magnitudes greater than 0 in GEOMETRY. Using algebra, this is NOT possible.
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude***
Write this on your walls, in your sticky notes, say it while you eat, shit and pray until it gets into your thick skulls. Who knows, maybe some day you will reach my level of awareness, you syphilitic morons.
*******************************************************************
Numbers do exist exactly, distinctly relative to an arbitrary existing unity distance, and so independently and much before any human definitions existed as distinct existing exact distances, FOR SURE
Not meant for you.
But your understanding of number is correct then!
And what does it mean "existing distinctly relative to an arbitrary unit"?
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude".
Here in Euclide definition, I think or it seems to me the word measure is meant for linear measuremens, (as if one is haveing a tap where only rational numbers are marked on that tape, such that any distance of a visible length must corrospond by force to a rational number even to very high degree of accuracy) which is visibly, and practically true, for sure
Correct. It is used for distance, but the principle applies to everything else: area, volume, mass, etc.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But there is also the similar angular measurements that visibly and practically seems identical to lineae measurements except that it goes too deep into the endless space between any two rational numbers
True. But this does not mean those angles do not exist, RATHER their measure is not possible or does not exist.
Then let us forget momentary about their measure and try instead to discover them exactly and well-describe them in a comprehincible method for human minds
Post by Eram semper recta
Every angle is possible, but the measure of every angle is not possible.
How can this angle for example (Pi/7) be a possible occurrence in any existing triangle with exactly known sides? wonder!
1. A shortest distance exists between any two points.
Considering two *distinct* locations or points on a circle, then how short is the distance can be?
The shortest distance is always a straight line. I'm not sure what you are asking because I think this is obvious.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Of course, I don't mean the arc distance since it is not the shortest distance between the two points, nor can be nothing like zero (no number) in mathematics
I wasn't talking about the arc being the shortest distance on a circle, but it is always the shortest distance on a sphere. Circle =/= sphere. :-)))
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Where Pi is an existing angle
Pi is NEVER an angle, only the name given to the angle which is known as a straight line.
with that statement, you show your vast ignorance of Math.

ever hear of radians ? thought not.

you never made it through geometry !
Sergio
2019-10-28 16:35:11 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
An algebraic number is any complex number that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.
x^2 = 2
This would imply that the *magnitude* sqrt(2) is algebraic, but in order to be algebraic, it must have a measure. sqrt(2) has no measure.
Look,
(sqrt(object))^2 = object
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude or size***
LMAO.
What you should be thinking now if you had even half a brain, is what are the requirements of "object" in (sqrt(object))^2 = object, so that taking the square root and then the square results in a "number"?
Hint: object must have a **********MEASURE**********
All arithmetic can be done with magnitudes greater than 0 in GEOMETRY. Using algebra, this is NOT possible.
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude***
Write this on your walls, in your sticky notes, say it while you eat, shit and pray until it gets into your thick skulls. Who knows, maybe some day you will reach my level of awareness, you syphilitic morons.
*******************************************************************
Numbers do exist exactly, distinctly relative to an arbitrary existing unity distance, and so independently and much before any human definitions existed as distinct existing exact distances, FOR SURE
Not meant for you.
But your understanding of number is correct then!
And what does it mean "existing distinctly relative to an arbitrary unit"?
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude".
Here in Euclide definition, I think or it seems to me the word measure is meant for linear measuremens, (as if one is haveing a tap where only rational numbers are marked on that tape, such that any distance of a visible length must corrospond by force to a rational number even to very high degree of accuracy) which is visibly, and practically true, for sure
Correct. It is used for distance, but the principle applies to everything else: area, volume, mass, etc.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But there is also the similar angular measurements that visibly and practically seems identical to lineae measurements except that it goes too deep into the endless space between any two rational numbers
True. But this does not mean those angles do not exist, RATHER their measure is not possible or does not exist.
Then let us forget momentary about their measure and try instead to discover them exactly and well-describe them in a comprehincible method for human minds
Post by Eram semper recta
Every angle is possible, but the measure of every angle is not possible.
How can this angle for example (Pi/7) be a possible occurrence in any existing triangle with exactly known sides? wonder!
1. A shortest distance exists between any two points.
2. Said distance in (1) can be extended or shortened as desired.
3. There is a distance that is formed such that from any location along this distance, the distance to a given point called a centre, is the same straight line AND if this straight line is extended, it will meet another location along the same distance. This distance is called a CIRCLE. There is no other distance described by the same requirement.
Now, you can very easily define an angle as the result of two lines intersecting and call the point of intersection the VERTEX.
Next, you need a means of identifying angles, that is, a NAME. The only UNIQUE way to do this, is to call the angles by the RATIO of the arc to the RADIUS (shortest distance from centre to any part of the periphery).
By so doing, you have created a unique name for the distance of each angle.
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1CIul68phzuOe6JZwsCuBuXUR8X-AkgEO/view
Post by bassam king karzeddin
If a new theorem in geometry to be discovered yet that can DISCOVER and explain it, then it would be the second most important revolution in understanding the real numbers and angels as well after that first OLD revolution happened from the Pythagorean theorem
Post by Eram semper recta
There are no other numbers besides the rational numbers.
The simple existing angle (pi/4 = 45 Degrees) does exist in so many triangles,
THE DERIVATION OF ANGLES HAVE NOTHING TO DO WITH TRIANGLES!!!!!!!!
that is so wrong. Each triangle has 3 angles.

that is why a tri-angle is called a tri-angle.

JG ∈ morons
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
where it is impossible for any triangle to have all its sides in rational numbers only, same like for the angels (pi/6 = 30 Degrees), and so many other angels as well
BKK
Post by Eram semper recta
1. Both c and d have no measure
2. c has measure but d does not
3. d has measure but c does not
Post by bassam king karzeddin
no matter however seemingly small the distance between them where we discover another irrational and exact existing distances between them were no existing rational accuracy can exactly measure and were originally existing due to the undeniable Pythagorean theorem
What makes the diagonal of a rectangle of sides (3, 4) unit distances as exactly 5 unit rational number distance is the same that makes the irrational sqrt(2) as a diagonal of a square with unity side
Since in the first case, a triangle with sides (3, 4, 5) exists theoretically and physically as well, whereas in the second case we have two unity sides distances are perpendicular by the existing angle of PI/2, hence diagonal is existing and exact, where if we make a square from its length-distance it would be an exact area of two squares each with unity side distance
So to say, we need another tap like where also those newly discovered distances should be added or marked on that rational tape (at least symbolically)
BKK
Post by Eram semper recta
:-)))
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Copyright, 2019
Bassam Karzeddin
******************************************************
This may be irrelevant to my above definition of number
EXACT: means well described and well understood by any intelligent being (if at all existing) in any real space that a universe exists in
But my doubts, since the (shortest or longest) distances never existing, then we may be living truly in no space at all, where then you may be right since the Pythagorean theorem would never exist either or have any meaning or effect, where then numbers are only rationals, with no meaning for distances as well, or for space perpendicular dimentions or any meaningless physical universe we do sense, but not for sure
I truly tried hard to refute the Pythagorian theorem like many other things, but couldn't due to its absolute validity in abso
Alan Mackenzie
2019-10-28 17:45:28 UTC
Permalink
[ .... ]
Post by Eram semper recta
You don't have to construct any triangle at all because the original
angle is based on the CIRCLE and the arc on which it is subtended. The
angle came long before the triangle. It follows on the heels of the
1. A shortest distance exists between any two points.
Yes. That's an axiom. ;-)
Post by Eram semper recta
2. Said distance in (1) can be extended or shortened as desired.
That's another axiom.
Post by Eram semper recta
3. There is a distance that is formed such that from any location
along this distance, the distance to a given point called a centre, is
the same straight line AND if this straight line is extended, it will
meet another location along the same distance. This distance is called
a CIRCLE. There is no other distance described by the same
requirement.
But that's probably a theorem.

[ .... ]
--
Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).
Eram semper recta
2019-10-28 18:42:04 UTC
Permalink
Post by Alan Mackenzie
[ .... ]
Post by Eram semper recta
You don't have to construct any triangle at all because the original
angle is based on the CIRCLE and the arc on which it is subtended. The
angle came long before the triangle. It follows on the heels of the
1. A shortest distance exists between any two points.
Yes. That's an axiom. ;-)
No idiot. It is not an axiom. There are no axioms or postulates in mathematics as I have proved beyond any shadow of doubt. Only fools still think otherwise.

<drivel follows>
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by Eram semper recta
2. Said distance in (1) can be extended or shortened as desired.
That's another axiom.
Post by Eram semper recta
3. There is a distance that is formed such that from any location
along this distance, the distance to a given point called a centre, is
the same straight line AND if this straight line is extended, it will
meet another location along the same distance. This distance is called
a CIRCLE. There is no other distance described by the same
requirement.
But that's probably a theorem.
[ .... ]
--
Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).
Sergio
2019-10-28 18:51:54 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Alan Mackenzie
[ .... ]
Post by Eram semper recta
You don't have to construct any triangle at all because the original
angle is based on the CIRCLE and the arc on which it is subtended. The
angle came long before the triangle. It follows on the heels of the
1. A shortest distance exists between any two points.
Yes. That's an axiom. ;-)
No idiot. It is not an axiom. There are no axioms or postulates in mathematics as I have proved beyond any shadow of doubt. Only fools still think otherwise.
yo mama is a postulate in hotel axiom, birdbrain.
Python
2019-10-28 23:21:38 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
There are no axioms or postulates in mathematics as I have proved
beyond any shadow of doubt. Only fools still think otherwise.
John, John, John Gabriel. Face it. You've never proven ANYTHING.
You are as far to any kind of proof than a amoeba is close to
sexual reproduction. You'll stay - a little - famous for your
crankery. That's all. Face it, and die.
Eram semper recta
2019-10-29 01:11:25 UTC
Permalink
Post by Python
Post by Eram semper recta
There are no axioms or postulates in mathematics as I have proved
beyond any shadow of doubt. Only fools still think otherwise.
John, John, John Gabriel. Face it. You've never proven ANYTHING.
You are as far to any kind of proof than a amoeba is close to
sexual reproduction. You'll stay - a little - famous for your
crankery. That's all. Face it, and die.
Jealous fool is all that you are, knowing you shall never amount to even a shadow of my greatness.
Sergio
2019-10-31 23:26:06 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Python
Post by Eram semper recta
There are no axioms or postulates in mathematics as I have proved
beyond any shadow of doubt. Only fools still think otherwise.
John, John, John Gabriel. Face it. You've never proven ANYTHING.
You are as far to any kind of proof than a amoeba is close to
sexual reproduction. You'll stay - a little - famous for your
crankery. That's all. Face it, and die.
Jealous fool is all that you are, knowing you shall never amount to even a shadow of my greatness.
your greatness remains in your fingers,

it is not transmitted through the keyboard onto the internet.
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-28 11:44:18 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
An algebraic number is any complex number that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.
x^2 = 2
This would imply that the *magnitude* sqrt(2) is algebraic, but in order to be algebraic, it must have a measure. sqrt(2) has no measure.
Look,
(sqrt(object))^2 = object
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude or size***
LMAO.
What you should be thinking now if you had even half a brain, is what are the requirements of "object" in (sqrt(object))^2 = object, so that taking the square root and then the square results in a "number"?
Hint: object must have a **********MEASURE**********
All arithmetic can be done with magnitudes greater than 0 in GEOMETRY. Using algebra, this is NOT possible.
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude***
Write this on your walls, in your sticky notes, say it while you eat, shit and pray until it gets into your thick skulls. Who knows, maybe some day you will reach my level of awareness, you syphilitic morons.
*******************************************************************
Numbers do exist exactly, distinctly relative to an arbitrary existing unity distance, and so independently and much before any human definitions existed as distinct existing exact distances, FOR SURE
Not meant for you.
But your understanding of number is correct then!
And what does it mean "existing distinctly relative to an arbitrary unit"?
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude".
Here in Euclide definition, I think or it seems to me the word measure is meant for linear measuremens, (as if one is haveing a tap where only rational numbers are marked on that tape, such that any distance of a visible length must corrospond by force to a rational number even to very high degree of accuracy) which is visibly, and practically true, for sure
Note: Here, I must add this important note to the above illustration
Of course, it is theoretically and practically impossible for any such tape to include every distinct and existing uniquely of a rational or irrational distance as a number as it is absolutly impossible for every existing distance to be not an existing number

Hence, some human mind numbers with no exact distances are impossible existence, even though, they keep dressing many other existing numbers trying aimlessly and hopelessly to replace them but so unsuccessfully FOR SURE
BKK
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But there is also the similar angular measurements that visibly and practically seems identical to lineae measurements except that it goes too deep into the endless space between any two rational numbers no matter however seemingly small the distance between them where we discover another irrational and exact existing distances between them were no existing rational accuracy can exactly measure and were originally existing due to the undeniable Pythagorean theorem
What makes the diagonal of a rectangle of sides (3, 4) unit distances as exactly 5 unit rational number distance is the same that makes the irrational sqrt(2) as a diagonal of a square with unity side
Since in the first case, a triangle with sides (3, 4, 5) exists theoretically and physically as well, whereas in the second case we have two unity sides distances are perpendicular by the existing angle of PI/2, hence diagonal is existing and exact, where if we make a square from its length-distance it would be an exact area of two squares each with unity side distance
So to say, we need another tap like where also those newly discovered distances should be added or marked on that rational tape (at least symbolically)
BKK
Post by Eram semper recta
:-)))
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Copyright, 2019
Bassam Karzeddin
******************************************************
This may be irrelevant to my above definition of number
EXACT: means well described and well understood by any intelligent being (if at all existing) in any real space that a universe exists in
But my doubts, since the (shortest or longest) distances never existing, then we may be living truly in no space at all, where then you may be right since the Pythagorean theorem would never exist either or have any meaning or effect, where then numbers are only rationals, with no meaning for distances as well, or for space perpendicular dimentions or any meaningless physical universe we do sense, but not for sure
I truly tried hard to refute the Pythagorian theorem like many other things, but couldn't due to its absolute validity in absolute space, sure
BKK
Eram semper recta
2019-10-28 11:58:47 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
An algebraic number is any complex number that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.
x^2 = 2
This would imply that the *magnitude* sqrt(2) is algebraic, but in order to be algebraic, it must have a measure. sqrt(2) has no measure.
Look,
(sqrt(object))^2 = object
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude or size***
LMAO.
What you should be thinking now if you had even half a brain, is what are the requirements of "object" in (sqrt(object))^2 = object, so that taking the square root and then the square results in a "number"?
Hint: object must have a **********MEASURE**********
All arithmetic can be done with magnitudes greater than 0 in GEOMETRY. Using algebra, this is NOT possible.
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude***
Write this on your walls, in your sticky notes, say it while you eat, shit and pray until it gets into your thick skulls. Who knows, maybe some day you will reach my level of awareness, you syphilitic morons.
*******************************************************************
Numbers do exist exactly, distinctly relative to an arbitrary existing unity distance, and so independently and much before any human definitions existed as distinct existing exact distances, FOR SURE
Not meant for you.
But your understanding of number is correct then!
And what does it mean "existing distinctly relative to an arbitrary unit"?
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude".
Here in Euclide definition, I think or it seems to me the word measure is meant for linear measuremens, (as if one is haveing a tap where only rational numbers are marked on that tape, such that any distance of a visible length must corrospond by force to a rational number even to very high degree of accuracy) which is visibly, and practically true, for sure
Note: Here, I must add this important note to the above illustration
Of course, it is theoretically and practically impossible for any such tape to include every distinct and existing uniquely of a rational or irrational distance as a number as it is absolutly impossible for every existing distance to be not an existing number
Distance is NOT a number. The measure of distance is a number.

***Magnitude or size IS NOT a number.***

***A number DESCRIBES the measure of a magnitude or size.***

For this reason you cannot call pi a number even though it is a distance depicted by c:d. In order to be a number, it must be measurable by ANOTHER distance, namely the UNIT!!!!!

Can you show me any unit which measures pi? Hint: You can't!

So it's important to call objects appropriately and not by names which do not say what those objects are.

It is INSUFFICIENT to write ___ : _ and call it a "number pi", UNLESS you can divide _ into a finite number of equal pieces which you can use to measure ___.

Get it???
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Hence, some human mind numbers with no exact distances are impossible existence, even though, they keep dressing many other existing numbers trying aimlessly and hopelessly to replace them but so unsuccessfully FOR SURE
BKK
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But there is also the similar angular measurements that visibly and practically seems identical to lineae measurements except that it goes too deep into the endless space between any two rational numbers no matter however seemingly small the distance between them where we discover another irrational and exact existing distances between them were no existing rational accuracy can exactly measure and were originally existing due to the undeniable Pythagorean theorem
What makes the diagonal of a rectangle of sides (3, 4) unit distances as exactly 5 unit rational number distance is the same that makes the irrational sqrt(2) as a diagonal of a square with unity side
Since in the first case, a triangle with sides (3, 4, 5) exists theoretically and physically as well, whereas in the second case we have two unity sides distances are perpendicular by the existing angle of PI/2, hence diagonal is existing and exact, where if we make a square from its length-distance it would be an exact area of two squares each with unity side distance
So to say, we need another tap like where also those newly discovered distances should be added or marked on that rational tape (at least symbolically)
BKK
Post by Eram semper recta
:-)))
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Copyright, 2019
Bassam Karzeddin
******************************************************
This may be irrelevant to my above definition of number
EXACT: means well described and well understood by any intelligent being (if at all existing) in any real space that a universe exists in
But my doubts, since the (shortest or longest) distances never existing, then we may be living truly in no space at all, where then you may be right since the Pythagorean theorem would never exist either or have any meaning or effect, where then numbers are only rationals, with no meaning for distances as well, or for space perpendicular dimentions or any meaningless physical universe we do sense, but not for sure
I truly tried hard to refute the Pythagorian theorem like many other things, but couldn't due to its absolute validity in absolute space, sure
BKK
Sergio
2019-10-28 15:01:38 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Post by bassam king karzeddin
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number
Quite explicit, you retarded illiterate.
According to the Wolfram-Alpha, they express it only with endless decimal form as a real irrational number, where it seems they don't know yet that it could be algebraic, but (suppose) someone puts it in the algebraic form, then most likely they would add it immediately to their forms as if it was originally their own achievements shamelessly and under the sunlight and everyone eyes and attention, same cases with Wikipedia thieves writers or those many secretive researchers who later publishes their thefts even in the top-most rebuttable Journals and Universities, they are after every bone thrawn to them and scattered anywhere on the internet, as well, this is what did I notice earlier when I wrote many topics about integer degrees angles that are divisible by 3, where they used to previously to express them only in decimal forms, but soon they realized the issue and immediately fond a constructible forms to those many existing integer degree angles (divisible by 3),
As if they are deliberately and very secretly instructed and encouraged as well to never promote any public site for whatever good new result in their mathematics they may be able to produce since there are no seeming rules or any minimum ethic among mathematicians to originate any new maths to its true creators
All that great fear from public domains I think just to keep the establishing and publications process only in the hands of the real thieves, where people finally resort only for them in any new good issue that may be useful
And they set like rules, that sci.math, for example, isn't any trustable source for whatever it produces, where they allow themselves to hide in and read topics and conclude then the right things to be outlined only by them and for another important reason which is to hide the true original sources by-laws they only employ for their own needs
Which is why you see the Wikipedia pages keep changing almost daily and mostly form public sources discussions where they usually deny, sur
BK
Link: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=cos%2840%29
An algebraic number is any complex number that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.
x^2 = 2
This would imply that the *magnitude* sqrt(2) is algebraic, but in order to be algebraic, it must have a measure. sqrt(2) has no measure.
Look,
(sqrt(object))^2 = object
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude or size***
LMAO.
What you should be thinking now if you had even half a brain, is what are the requirements of "object" in (sqrt(object))^2 = object, so that taking the square root and then the square results in a "number"?
Hint: object must have a **********MEASURE**********
All arithmetic can be done with magnitudes greater than 0 in GEOMETRY. Using algebra, this is NOT possible.
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude***
Write this on your walls, in your sticky notes, say it while you eat, shit and pray until it gets into your thick skulls. Who knows, maybe some day you will reach my level of awareness, you syphilitic morons.
*******************************************************************
Numbers do exist exactly, distinctly relative to an arbitrary existing unity distance, and so independently and much before any human definitions existed as distinct existing exact distances, FOR SURE
Not meant for you.
But your understanding of number is correct then!
And what does it mean "existing distinctly relative to an arbitrary unit"?
***A number describes the measure of a magnitude".
Here in Euclide definition, I think or it seems to me the word measure is meant for linear measuremens, (as if one is haveing a tap where only rational numbers are marked on that tape, such that any distance of a visible length must corrospond by force to a rational number even to very high degree of accuracy) which is visibly, and practically true, for sure
Note: Here, I must add this important note to the above illustration
Of course, it is theoretically and practically impossible for any such tape to include every distinct and existing uniquely of a rational or irrational distance as a number as it is absolutly impossible for every existing distance to be not an existing number
Distance is NOT a number. The measure of distance is a number.
you forgot Units. Distance is measured in Units, like Miles, inches, AU


but that is where you get
p***@gmail.com
2019-10-27 15:37:45 UTC
Permalink
Oh, Bassam, you can never trust Wolfram Alpha or those morons at charge of Wikipedia. They don't know the real truth, but you do!

Just show us your proof that it's algebraic. But don't forget to write "copyright" at the end.
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-27 16:16:29 UTC
Permalink
Post by p***@gmail.com
Oh, Bassam, you can never trust Wolfram Alpha or those morons at charge of Wikipedia. They don't know the real truth, but you do!
Just show us your proof that it's algebraic. But don't forget to write "copyright" at the end.
You know that I personally and alone (I THINK) do only believe in already existing numbers that do exist independently from **any intelligent being definitions** as distinct existing EXACT distances that are represented in distinct existing EXACT numbers

But speaking in terms of the current modern language of modern mathematics, I didn't suffer to find immediately an algebraic definition for cos(40) degrees which is already done by others on this link

https://socratic.org/questions/how-do-you-evaluate-cos-2pi-9
BKK
Alan Mackenzie
2019-10-27 18:13:58 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Oh, Bassam, you can never trust Wolfram Alpha or those morons at
charge of Wikipedia. They don't know the real truth, but you do!
Just show us your proof that it's algebraic. But don't forget to write
"copyright" at the end.
You know that I personally and alone (I THINK) do only believe in
already existing numbers that do exist independently from **any
intelligent being definitions** as distinct existing EXACT distances
that are represented in distinct existing EXACT numbers
You don't know what it means to say a number exists. You don't even know
what you think _you_ mean.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But speaking in terms of the current modern language of modern
mathematics, I didn't suffer to find immediately an algebraic
definition for cos(40) degrees which is already done by others on this
link
https://socratic.org/questions/how-do-you-evaluate-cos-2pi-9
I doubt it. cos 40° is transcendental.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
BKK
--
Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).
Eram semper recta
2019-10-27 20:19:35 UTC
Permalink
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Oh, Bassam, you can never trust Wolfram Alpha or those morons at
charge of Wikipedia. They don't know the real truth, but you do!
Just show us your proof that it's algebraic. But don't forget to write
"copyright" at the end.
You know that I personally and alone (I THINK) do only believe in
already existing numbers that do exist independently from **any
intelligent being definitions** as distinct existing EXACT distances
that are represented in distinct existing EXACT numbers
You don't know what it means to say a number exists.
He knows a hell of lot better than you do.
Post by Alan Mackenzie
You don't even know what you think _you_ mean.
Coming from an ignorant punk like you, the arrogance is perplexing. It's as if you are describing yourself because you never know what you say never mind what you think.
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But speaking in terms of the current modern language of modern
mathematics, I didn't suffer to find immediately an algebraic
definition for cos(40) degrees which is already done by others on this
link
https://socratic.org/questions/how-do-you-evaluate-cos-2pi-9
I doubt it. cos 40° is transcendental.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
BKK
--
Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-28 17:02:33 UTC
Permalink
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
Oh, Bassam, you can never trust Wolfram Alpha or those morons at
charge of Wikipedia. They don't know the real truth, but you do!
Just show us your proof that it's algebraic. But don't forget to write
"copyright" at the end.
You know that I personally and alone (I THINK) do only believe in
already existing numbers that do exist independently from **any
intelligent being definitions** as distinct existing EXACT distances
that are represented in distinct existing EXACT numbers
You don't know what it means to say a number exists. You don't even know
what you think _you_ mean.
So, please, go a head and tell us what does that mean?
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But speaking in terms of the current modern language of modern
mathematics, I didn't suffer to find immediately an algebraic
definition for cos(40) degrees which is already done by others on this
link
https://socratic.org/questions/how-do-you-evaluate-cos-2pi-9
I doubt it. cos 40° is transcendental.
Haven't you cleared out your doubt yet? wonder!

Cos 40 degrees is an algebraic number in your modern mathematics but never mine

But, in my only mathematics, cost (40 degs.) doesn't exist as a number, wither it is algebraic or trans. number you DO STILL believe in since the angle (40 degrees itself) is impossible existence as I did prove it for hundreds of times and for ALL people on earth, in many of my public *PUBLISHED* posts, FOR SURE
BKK
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
BKK
--
Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-28 19:03:32 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
You know that I personally and alone (I THINK) do only believe in
already existing numbers that do exist independently from **any
intelligent being definitions** as distinct existing EXACT
distances that are represented in distinct existing EXACT numbers
You don't know what it means to say a number exists. You don't even know
what you think _you_ mean.
So, please, go a head and tell us what does that mean?
Certainly. A number exists when there's a non-inconsistent theory
behind numbers of that type, and its existence would not give rise to a
contradiction.
A number exists (if and only if) it can be represented or well-described exactly as an existing distance relative to any arbitrary existing unity distance, FOR SURE
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But speaking in terms of the current modern language of modern
mathematics, I didn't suffer to find immediately an algebraic
definition for cos(40) degrees which is already done by others on
this link
https://socratic.org/questions/how-do-you-evaluate-cos-2pi-9
I doubt it. cos 40° is transcendental.
Haven't you cleared out your doubt yet? wonder!
Cos 40 degrees is an algebraic number in your modern mathematics but never mine
Yes, you're right, cos 40° is indeed algebraic. My mistake. It is a
root of (at most) a degree 9 polynomial with integer coefficients. cos
9x can be written as this polynomial in cos x, and cos 9*40° = 1. The
polynomial is the Tchebychef polynomial of degree 9.
[ .... ]
But those numbers in modern mathematics are impossible to represent exactly any existing distance, thus they don't exist and they are no numbers at all

Despite fascinating us to be very close solutions to some problems by endless approximations, where this grate mind illusion happens due to the very high density of the real existing constructible numbers that world mathematicians generally can't understand it yet, where those alleged algebraic or trans, numbers are perpetually presented in previous forms, but their forms don't exist based on their specifications, SURE

BKK
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
BKK
-- Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).
Eram semper recta
2019-10-28 19:45:13 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
You know that I personally and alone (I THINK) do only believe in
already existing numbers that do exist independently from **any
intelligent being definitions** as distinct existing EXACT
distances that are represented in distinct existing EXACT numbers
You don't know what it means to say a number exists. You don't even know
what you think _you_ mean.
So, please, go a head and tell us what does that mean?
Certainly. A number exists when there's a non-inconsistent theory
behind numbers of that type, and its existence would not give rise to a
contradiction.
A number exists (if and only if) it can be represented or well-described exactly as an existing distance relative to any arbitrary existing unity distance, FOR SURE
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But speaking in terms of the current modern language of modern
mathematics, I didn't suffer to find immediately an algebraic
definition for cos(40) degrees which is already done by others on
this link
https://socratic.org/questions/how-do-you-evaluate-cos-2pi-9
I doubt it. cos 40° is transcendental.
Haven't you cleared out your doubt yet? wonder!
Cos 40 degrees is an algebraic number in your modern mathematics but never mine
Yes, you're right, cos 40° is indeed algebraic. My mistake. It is a
root of (at most) a degree 9 polynomial with integer coefficients. cos
9x can be written as this polynomial in cos x, and cos 9*40° = 1. The
polynomial is the Tchebychef polynomial of degree 9.
[ .... ]
But those numbers in modern mathematics are impossible to represent exactly any existing distance, thus they don't exist and they are no numbers at all
Exactly right!
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Despite fascinating us to be very close solutions to some problems by endless approximations, where this grate mind illusion happens due to the very high density of the real existing constructible numbers that world mathematicians generally can't understand it yet, where those alleged algebraic or trans, numbers are perpetually presented in previous forms, but their forms don't exist based on their specifications, SURE
BKK
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
BKK
-- Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).
Zelos Malum
2019-10-30 07:16:59 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
You know that I personally and alone (I THINK) do only believe in
already existing numbers that do exist independently from **any
intelligent being definitions** as distinct existing EXACT
distances that are represented in distinct existing EXACT numbers
You don't know what it means to say a number exists. You don't even know
what you think _you_ mean.
So, please, go a head and tell us what does that mean?
Certainly. A number exists when there's a non-inconsistent theory
behind numbers of that type, and its existence would not give rise to a
contradiction.
A number exists (if and only if) it can be represented or well-described exactly as an existing distance relative to any arbitrary existing unity distance, FOR SURE
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But speaking in terms of the current modern language of modern
mathematics, I didn't suffer to find immediately an algebraic
definition for cos(40) degrees which is already done by others on
this link
https://socratic.org/questions/how-do-you-evaluate-cos-2pi-9
I doubt it. cos 40° is transcendental.
Haven't you cleared out your doubt yet? wonder!
Cos 40 degrees is an algebraic number in your modern mathematics but never mine
Yes, you're right, cos 40° is indeed algebraic. My mistake. It is a
root of (at most) a degree 9 polynomial with integer coefficients. cos
9x can be written as this polynomial in cos x, and cos 9*40° = 1. The
polynomial is the Tchebychef polynomial of degree 9.
[ .... ]
But those numbers in modern mathematics are impossible to represent exactly any existing distance, thus they don't exist and they are no numbers at all
Despite fascinating us to be very close solutions to some problems by endless approximations, where this grate mind illusion happens due to the very high density of the real existing constructible numbers that world mathematicians generally can't understand it yet, where those alleged algebraic or trans, numbers are perpetually presented in previous forms, but their forms don't exist based on their specifications, SURE
BKK
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
BKK
-- Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).
and who says one must represent anything as a distance?
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-30 08:07:14 UTC
Permalink
Post by Zelos Malum
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
You know that I personally and alone (I THINK) do only believe in
already existing numbers that do exist independently from **any
intelligent being definitions** as distinct existing EXACT
distances that are represented in distinct existing EXACT numbers
You don't know what it means to say a number exists. You don't even know
what you think _you_ mean.
So, please, go a head and tell us what does that mean?
Certainly. A number exists when there's a non-inconsistent theory
behind numbers of that type, and its existence would not give rise to a
contradiction.
A number exists (if and only if) it can be represented or well-described exactly as an existing distance relative to any arbitrary existing unity distance, FOR SURE
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But speaking in terms of the current modern language of modern
mathematics, I didn't suffer to find immediately an algebraic
definition for cos(40) degrees which is already done by others on
this link
https://socratic.org/questions/how-do-you-evaluate-cos-2pi-9
I doubt it. cos 40° is transcendental.
Haven't you cleared out your doubt yet? wonder!
Cos 40 degrees is an algebraic number in your modern mathematics but
never mine
Yes, you're right, cos 40° is indeed algebraic. My mistake. It is a
root of (at most) a degree 9 polynomial with integer coefficients. cos
9x can be written as this polynomial in cos x, and cos 9*40° = 1. The
polynomial is the Tchebychef polynomial of degree 9.
[ .... ]
But those numbers in modern mathematics are impossible to represent exactly any existing distance, thus they don't exist and they are no numbers at all
Despite fascinating us to be very close solutions to some problems by endless approximations, where this grate mind illusion happens due to the very high density of the real existing constructible numbers that world mathematicians generally can't understand it yet, where those alleged algebraic or trans, numbers are perpetually presented in previous forms, but their forms don't exist based on their specifications, SURE
BKK
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
BKK
-- Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).
and who says one must represent anything as a distance?
I'm saying that every real existing number must correspond exactly to an exact existing distance RELATIVE to an existing arbitrary unity distance, otherwise and if not, then must be a human mind fiction number and never real number FOR SURE

Of course, this is also applicable to area's or volumes that can also be related to existing distance equivalence
BKK
Eram semper recta
2019-10-30 14:23:12 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Zelos Malum
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
You know that I personally and alone (I THINK) do only believe in
already existing numbers that do exist independently from **any
intelligent being definitions** as distinct existing EXACT
distances that are represented in distinct existing EXACT numbers
You don't know what it means to say a number exists. You don't even know
what you think _you_ mean.
So, please, go a head and tell us what does that mean?
Certainly. A number exists when there's a non-inconsistent theory
behind numbers of that type, and its existence would not give rise to a
contradiction.
A number exists (if and only if) it can be represented or well-described exactly as an existing distance relative to any arbitrary existing unity distance, FOR SURE
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But speaking in terms of the current modern language of modern
mathematics, I didn't suffer to find immediately an algebraic
definition for cos(40) degrees which is already done by others on
this link
https://socratic.org/questions/how-do-you-evaluate-cos-2pi-9
I doubt it. cos 40° is transcendental.
Haven't you cleared out your doubt yet? wonder!
Cos 40 degrees is an algebraic number in your modern mathematics but
never mine
Yes, you're right, cos 40° is indeed algebraic. My mistake. It is a
root of (at most) a degree 9 polynomial with integer coefficients. cos
9x can be written as this polynomial in cos x, and cos 9*40° = 1. The
polynomial is the Tchebychef polynomial of degree 9.
[ .... ]
But those numbers in modern mathematics are impossible to represent exactly any existing distance, thus they don't exist and they are no numbers at all
Despite fascinating us to be very close solutions to some problems by endless approximations, where this grate mind illusion happens due to the very high density of the real existing constructible numbers that world mathematicians generally can't understand it yet, where those alleged algebraic or trans, numbers are perpetually presented in previous forms, but their forms don't exist based on their specifications, SURE
BKK
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by bassam king karzeddin
BKK
-- Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).
and who says one must represent anything as a distance?
Malum is attaining new exotic depths of stupidity. I would like to see him replace distance with anything else in the Elements and then derive the 5 requirements.

ONLY distance can be derived from NOTHING.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
I'm saying that every real existing number must correspond exactly to an exact existing distance RELATIVE to an existing arbitrary unity distance, otherwise and if not, then must be a human mind fiction number and never real number FOR SURE
Of course, this is also applicable to area's or volumes that can also be related to existing distance equivalence
The Greeks chose distance because it was the easiest way to reify number from NOTHING. Imagine if they had chosen "mass"! Chuckle.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
BKK
Zelos Malum
2019-10-31 06:56:16 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
I'm saying that every real existing number must correspond exactly to an exact existing distance RELATIVE to an existing arbitrary unity distance, otherwise and if not, then must be a human mind fiction number and never real number FOR SURE
And why must it correspond to a physical distance?

You don't dictate the criteria for existence in mathematics.
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-31 08:01:07 UTC
Permalink
Post by Zelos Malum
Post by bassam king karzeddin
I'm saying that every real existing number must correspond exactly to an exact existing distance RELATIVE to an existing arbitrary unity distance, otherwise and if not, then must be a human mind fiction number and never real number FOR SURE
And why must it correspond to a physical distance?
Note that I didn't say the existing physical length but rather a distance to avoid confusing others since the physical length is visibly continuous and must ultimately correspond to a rational number measure with some suitable accuracy that we can't go beyond but the mere physical distances (real existing numbers) are not the same conceptionally since the distance isn't continuous measure but discrete and exactly like real existing numbers, besides perpendicular straight distances shape the entire space dimensions that we sense around

And when two unparallel straight distances pass each other on the same plan they don't necessarily intersect at a real existing number to form an angle like (Pi/9 = 20 Degrees) for example, due to non-continuity that is an intrinsic property of real existing numbers as exact distances

I know that isn't written in any book yet, but this is a fact of already existing numbers (without our own existence or silly definitions)

Numbers are a matter of true discovery but never any kind of primitive human industry FOR SURE
Post by Zelos Malum
You don't dictate the criteria for existence in mathematics.
Try to find another meaningful physical meaning for numbers than a distance? Wonder!

This is only a new correct beginning for the deepest meaning of numbers that was a complete reflection from the physical existing world, where if one doesn't exist so is the other, FOR SURE
BKK
Eram semper recta
2019-10-31 14:18:53 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Zelos Malum
Post by bassam king karzeddin
I'm saying that every real existing number must correspond exactly to an exact existing distance RELATIVE to an existing arbitrary unity distance, otherwise and if not, then must be a human mind fiction number and never real number FOR SURE
And why must it correspond to a physical distance?
Note that I didn't say the existing physical length but rather a distance to avoid confusing others since the physical length is visibly continuous and must ultimately correspond to a rational number measure with some suitable accuracy that we can't go beyond but the mere physical distances (real existing numbers) are not the same conceptionally since the distance isn't continuous measure but discrete and exactly like real existing numbers, besides perpendicular straight distances shape the entire space dimensions that we sense around
And when two unparallel straight distances pass each other on the same plan they don't necessarily intersect at a real existing number to form an angle like (Pi/9 = 20 Degrees) for example, due to non-continuity that is an intrinsic property of real existing numbers as exact distances
I know that isn't written in any book yet, but this is a fact of already existing numbers (without our own existence or silly definitions)
Numbers are a matter of true discovery but never any kind of primitive human industry FOR SURE
Post by Zelos Malum
You don't dictate the criteria for existence in mathematics.
Try to find another meaningful physical meaning for numbers than a distance? Wonder!
If you are starting with nothing, then the only concept that can be reified, is DISTANCE. Nothing else. This is why the Greeks used distance and with it defined the meaning of number:

A number describes the measure of a magnitude.

Anything that does not conform to that statement, is not a number of any kind.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
This is only a new correct beginning for the deepest meaning of numbers that was a complete reflection from the physical existing world, where if one doesn't exist so is the other, FOR SURE
BKK
Alan Mackenzie
2019-10-31 17:50:30 UTC
Permalink
Eram semper recta <***@gmail.com> wrote:

[ .... ]
Post by Eram semper recta
If you are starting with nothing, then the only concept that can be
reified, is DISTANCE. Nothing else.
Is that an axiom, or can you prove it? If neither of these alternatives
hold, than what you have written is false.

[ .... ]
Post by Eram semper recta
BKK
--
Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).
Eram semper recta
2019-10-31 19:50:23 UTC
Permalink
Post by Alan Mackenzie
[ .... ]
Post by Eram semper recta
If you are starting with nothing, then the only concept that can be
reified, is DISTANCE. Nothing else.
Is that an axiom, or can you prove it?
What part of "There are no axioms or postulates in sound mathematics" do you not understand?
Post by Alan Mackenzie
If neither of these alternatives hold, than what you have written is false.
My free eBook shows how distance is reified from nothing. Perhaps if you actually cared to study it with an open and unbiased mind, you might surprise yourself! An entire chapter is dedicated to this topic and there are also numerous videos on YT in which I discuss these things.

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1CIul68phzuOe6JZwsCuBuXUR8X-AkgEO/view
Post by Alan Mackenzie
[ .... ]
Post by Eram semper recta
BKK
--
Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).
Alan Mackenzie
2019-10-31 22:23:47 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Alan Mackenzie
[ .... ]
Post by Eram semper recta
If you are starting with nothing, then the only concept that can be
reified, is DISTANCE. Nothing else.
Is that an axiom, or can you prove it?
What part of "There are no axioms or postulates in sound mathematics"
do you not understand?
I understand every single part of it, and it is false. Like so many
terms in mathematics, you chose to mean something different from
mathematicians with "axiom". It makes communication with you difficult
and frustrating.
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Alan Mackenzie
If neither of these alternatives hold, than what you have written is false.
My free eBook shows how distance is reified from nothing.
I don't know what you mean by "reified", and I doubt I'm missing anything
important. It feels like a word more at home in philosophy than in
mathematics.
Post by Eram semper recta
Perhaps if you actually cared to study it with an open and unbiased
mind, you might surprise yourself! An entire chapter is dedicated to
this topic and there are also numerous videos on YT in which I discuss
these things.
Perhaps I might surprise myself. Most likely not, though. You've posted
so much nonsense and so much abuse on this newsgroup over the years that
the expected non-nonsense ratio in your book is not all that high.
Post by Eram semper recta
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1CIul68phzuOe6JZwsCuBuXUR8X-AkgEO/view
--
Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).
Eram semper recta
2019-10-31 22:34:08 UTC
Permalink
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Alan Mackenzie
[ .... ]
Post by Eram semper recta
If you are starting with nothing, then the only concept that can be
reified, is DISTANCE. Nothing else.
Is that an axiom, or can you prove it?
What part of "There are no axioms or postulates in sound mathematics"
do you not understand?
I understand every single part of it, and it is false.
Which is the very first part you think is false? Put up or shut up. What follows is all your incorrect assertions and opinions. I am not interested in opinions.

I will show you that you are mistaken about the first part which you think is wrong.

<drivel follows>
Post by Alan Mackenzie
Like so many
terms in mathematics, you chose to mean something different from
mathematicians with "axiom". It makes communication with you difficult
and frustrating.
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Alan Mackenzie
If neither of these alternatives hold, than what you have written is false.
My free eBook shows how distance is reified from nothing.
I don't know what you mean by "reified", and I doubt I'm missing anything
important. It feels like a word more at home in philosophy than in
mathematics.
Post by Eram semper recta
Perhaps if you actually cared to study it with an open and unbiased
mind, you might surprise yourself! An entire chapter is dedicated to
this topic and there are also numerous videos on YT in which I discuss
these things.
Perhaps I might surprise myself. Most likely not, though. You've posted
so much nonsense and so much abuse on this newsgroup over the years that
the expected non-nonsense ratio in your book is not all that high.
Post by Eram semper recta
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1CIul68phzuOe6JZwsCuBuXUR8X-AkgEO/view
--
Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).
Zelos Malum
2019-11-01 07:01:57 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Zelos Malum
Post by bassam king karzeddin
I'm saying that every real existing number must correspond exactly to an exact existing distance RELATIVE to an existing arbitrary unity distance, otherwise and if not, then must be a human mind fiction number and never real number FOR SURE
And why must it correspond to a physical distance?
Note that I didn't say the existing physical length but rather a distance to avoid confusing others since the physical length is visibly continuous and must ultimately correspond to a rational number measure with some suitable accuracy that we can't go beyond but the mere physical distances (real existing numbers) are not the same conceptionally since the distance isn't continuous measure but discrete and exactly like real existing numbers, besides perpendicular straight distances shape the entire space dimensions that we sense around
And when two unparallel straight distances pass each other on the same plan they don't necessarily intersect at a real existing number to form an angle like (Pi/9 = 20 Degrees) for example, due to non-continuity that is an intrinsic property of real existing numbers as exact distances
I know that isn't written in any book yet, but this is a fact of already existing numbers (without our own existence or silly definitions)
Numbers are a matter of true discovery but never any kind of primitive human industry FOR SURE
Post by Zelos Malum
You don't dictate the criteria for existence in mathematics.
Try to find another meaningful physical meaning for numbers than a distance? Wonder!
A number describes the measure of a magnitude.
Anything that does not conform to that statement, is not a number of any kind.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
This is only a new correct beginning for the deepest meaning of numbers that was a complete reflection from the physical existing world, where if one doesn't exist so is the other, FOR SURE
BKK
if you start with nothing, you don't have space, so you have nothing where "distance" makes even sense.
Zelos Malum
2019-11-01 07:01:20 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Try to find another meaningful physical meaning for numbers than a distance? Wonder!
Why do I need to find a physical meaning for numbers? They exist in their own right, independent of the physical and I can make any numbers I want there.
Eram semper recta
2019-11-01 13:19:44 UTC
Permalink
Post by Zelos Malum
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Try to find another meaningful physical meaning for numbers than a distance? Wonder!
Why do I need to find a physical meaning for numbers?
You don't idiot! You know those things you constantly go on about ... axioms and other shit? Well, we use the objects we know and can relate to in order to derive all these abstract concepts. It's called reification. Look up that word MORON!
Post by Zelos Malum
They exist in their own right, independent of the physical and I can make any numbers I want there.
Ah, so now concepts exist independent of the human mind eh? Good boy! Chuckle.

You don't "make" numbers moron. They exist as perfect concepts independently of whether a dick like you ever thought of them.
Post by Zelos Malum
if you start with nothing, you don't have space,
Nothing means NOTHING. If the word space is used in this context, it means NOTHING.
Post by Zelos Malum
so you have nothing where "distance" makes even sense.
Right. And this is why you don't start directly with the concept of distance, you incorrigible idiot. You start with LOCATION which is reifiable only in a primitive way in the perfect derivation. After distance and number are reified, then it is possible to re-define these concepts at a more advanced level.
Zelos Malum
2019-11-04 13:37:04 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
You don't idiot!
Which is my point.
Post by Eram semper recta
You know those things you constantly go on about ... axioms and other shit?
Sensible stuff? Yes
Post by Eram semper recta
Well, we use the objects we know and can relate to in order to derive all these abstract concepts. It's called reification. Look up that word MORON!
Looked it up and irrelevant to mathematics.
Post by Eram semper recta
Ah, so now concepts exist independent of the human mind eh? Good boy! Chuckle.
Not what I wrote, I said independent of physical things, as in they don't need to represent anythign physical. It is still in our mind.
Post by Eram semper recta
You don't "make" numbers moron. They exist as perfect concepts independently of whether a dick like you ever thought of them.
If no mind came about, there would be no numbers.
Post by Eram semper recta
Nothing means NOTHING. If the word space is used in this context, it means NOTHING.
But space is SOMETHING, so you are axiomaticly assuming space.
Post by Eram semper recta
Right. And this is why you don't start directly with the concept of distance, you incorrigible idiot. You start with LOCATION which is reifiable only in a primitive way in the perfect derivation
Which assumes SPACE which is SOMETHING so you start with SOMETHING that you ASSUME exists.
Eram semper recta
2019-11-04 14:58:25 UTC
Permalink
Post by Zelos Malum
Post by Eram semper recta
You don't idiot!
Which is my point.
You don't even know what is a "point" - neither in mathematics or otherwise.

<snip - crap>
Zelos Malum
2019-11-05 06:43:26 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by Zelos Malum
Post by Eram semper recta
You don't idiot!
Which is my point.
You don't even know what is a "point" - neither in mathematics or otherwise.
<snip - crap>
of course, not addressing any of the points.

Especially where its pointed out that assuming space, is assuming something.
Zelos Malum
2019-10-31 06:58:28 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Malum is attaining new exotic depths of stupidity. I would like to see him replace distance with anything else in the Elements and then derive the 5 requirements.
Why would I need to replace anything? It axiomaticly assumes it and many things and it was fine as such from the beginning, cannot expect peopel 2000 years ago to figure out everything.
Post by Eram semper recta
ONLY distance can be derived from NOTHING
Except space is something. So you have assumed space and with it distance. Which means it is your axiom.

If you start with NOTHING, it means you cannot assume space, cannot assume distance, you cannot assume that distance is even meaningful.
bassam king karzeddin
2019-10-27 14:14:30 UTC
Permalink
Post by p***@gmail.com
@Bassam
I don't think you know what's an algebraic number. cos(40) is NOT algebraic.
Read something from time to time.
Oops, I'm truly so glad that someone like Philip finally coming and catching the *KING* in a single BIG error and in the standard mathematics that he usually FOLLOWS, wonder!

But are you sure from what you say? wonder!

If so, then certainly you mean that those numbers are only real transcendental numbers, (again in your maths but never mine), don't you Philip? wonder!

Did you check first your conclusion? wonder!

But I know how your maths works and can pretend it and do it for you if you don't get it alone in a short time, FOR SURE

OK, hurry up and prove your conclusion or simply ask for help to explain it for YOU

And generally speaking, and (NOT applicable here), people are so smart in catching the errors of others, but never in catching any truth, since truth is usually very painful if it isn't imposed on them by their authorised masters, FOR SURE
Eram semper recta
2019-10-27 14:31:50 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by p***@gmail.com
@Bassam
I don't think you know what's an algebraic number. cos(40) is NOT algebraic.
Read something from time to time.
Oops, I'm truly so glad that someone like Philip finally coming and catching the *KING* in a single BIG error and in the standard mathematics that he usually FOLLOWS, wonder!
Nope. Don't give him even the slightest idea that he knows something because he knows shit.

"real irrational algebraic number" is malformed because if it is irrational (incommensurable), then it must be "real" according to mythmatics, and if irrational, then it can't be algebraic.

You see, don't be fooled by the moron philipe, he thought he was onto something, but in truth the illiterate retard simply remembered the last part of the phrase which is "algebraic number" and he latched onto it.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
But are you sure from what you say? wonder!
If so, then certainly you mean that those numbers are only real transcendental numbers, (again in your maths but never mine), don't you Philip? wonder!
Did you check first your conclusion? wonder!
But I know how your maths works and can pretend it and do it for you if you don't get it alone in a short time, FOR SURE
OK, hurry up and prove your conclusion or simply ask for help to explain it for YOU
And generally speaking, and (NOT applicable here), people are so smart in catching the errors of others, but never in catching any truth, since truth is usually very painful if it isn't imposed on them by their authorised masters, FOR SURE
p***@gmail.com
2019-10-27 14:37:43 UTC
Permalink
@JG

It's you who don't know shit, but keep pretending.

Square root of 2 is irrational and obviously algebraic.

But, hey, you keep inventing your terms. What do YOU *think* is an algebraic number? Your illiteracy is astounding.
Eram semper recta
2019-10-27 14:48:44 UTC
Permalink
Post by p***@gmail.com
@JG
It's you who don't know shit, but keep pretending.
Square root of 2 is irrational and obviously algebraic.
Sqrt(2) isn't a number you utter moron, so it can't be algebraic in the sense that is a root of a non-zero polynomial in one variable with rational coefficients.

Show me the measure of sqrt(2) you dumb cunt.
Post by p***@gmail.com
But, hey, you keep inventing your terms. What do YOU *think* is an algebraic number? Your illiteracy is astounding.
Eram semper recta
2019-10-27 14:53:27 UTC
Permalink
Post by p***@gmail.com
@JG
It's you who don't know shit, but keep pretending.
Square root of 2 is irrational and obviously algebraic.
But, hey, you keep inventing your terms. What do YOU *think* is an algebraic number? Your illiteracy is astounding.
Come on moron... Show me the measure of sqrt(2).

Is it 1.4? 1.41? 1.414? What is the number that describes the MAGNITUDE of sqrt(2).

It must be awful to be such an idiot French retard eh?
p***@gmail.com
2019-10-27 15:03:15 UTC
Permalink
Hey, Bassam!!!

JG is saying that sqrt(2) is not a number!! How he dares!!

Tell him something, Bassam!

Sqrt(2) was legalized by the Pythagorean Theorem. However 1.414... is a ghost number.

Poor JG, still struggling with Pythagorean Theorem...
Eram semper recta
2019-10-27 15:10:05 UTC
Permalink
Post by p***@gmail.com
Hey, Bassam!!!
JG is saying that sqrt(2) is not a number!! How he dares!!
Tell him something, Bassam!
Sqrt(2) was legalized by the Pythagorean Theorem.
A **magnitude** is not a number, you illiterate moron. Sqrt(2) IS a *magnitude*.
Post by p***@gmail.com
However 1.414... is a ghost number.
1.414... is just nonsense in your stinky French brain.
Post by p***@gmail.com
Poor JG, still struggling with Pythagorean Theorem...
Poor idiot Philipe, still can't even explain to me what it means to be a "radix system". You see moron, unless you understand the basics, there is no use making a fool of yourself. You do NOT know anything that I don't already know about your mainstream mythmatics. LMAO.
Sergio
2019-10-27 17:56:46 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by p***@gmail.com
Hey, Bassam!!!
JG is saying that sqrt(2) is not a number!! How he dares!!
Tell him something, Bassam!
Sqrt(2) was legalized by the Pythagorean Theorem.
A **magnitude** is not a number, you illiterate moron. Sqrt(2) IS a *magnitude*.
no, it is a number.

magnitude refers to being in a system with coordinates.

I dont have time to correct or teach you JG.
Post by Eram semper recta
Post by p***@gmail.com
However 1.414... is a ghost number.
1.414... is just nonsense in your stinky French brain.
Post by p***@gmail.com
Poor JG, still struggling with Pythagorean Theorem...
p***@gmail.com
2019-10-27 14:33:52 UTC
Permalink
@Bassam

And you? Are you able to prove that cos(40) is algebraic? I would LOVE to see your proof. In your maths, if you wish.
bassam karzeddin
2023-08-14 03:04:02 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Dan Christensen
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Dan Christensen
Post by bassam king karzeddin
It mustn't be used in any serious physical important studies since this would be very dangerous FOR SURE
You mean like landing a probe with near pinpoint accuracy on Mars, so far away that a radio signal take several minutes to arrive there from Earth. Let's see you do that with your goofy little system, Crank Boy. Counting your fingers and toes just won't do it.
You are a typical Academic professional mathematician, Right?
No.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Then keep the technology issues aside for its true makers, since they are certainly better than you in your maths, but you don't know this fact yet
The math works with amazing precision. Deal with it, Crank Boy. Your goofy system is entirely useless.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
What did I mean exactly is something that is impossible to be well-understood especially by YOU
I meant to say along with your example if the distance in (mm) from a position on earth you choose to a position on Mars is (N) (mm), where (N) is a natural number and a side of any right-angle triangle, and once you reduce that distance only by one (mm), then that triangle is no more any right angle, FOR SURE
Pure gibberish!
Post by bassam king karzeddin
If you still can't believe what I tought you earlier,
You can't teach anything, BKK. Your mission seems to be to confuse and mislead students to bring us back to the stone age. Or maybe you are just extremely stupid. Or both.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Dare you get your 40 degrees angle in only one triangle, but with ***EXACT*** known sides moron?
Did that yesterday for the 100th time. A triangle with sides 1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length. Deal with it, Crank Boy. Your pathetic little system will never go anywhere. It won't get you to the next village, never mind landing on Mars. Yes, I can see you are insanely jealous. A total failure.
Dan
Download my DC Proof 2.0 freeware at http://www.dcproof.com
Visit my Math Blog at http://www.dcproof.wordpress.com
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number (that aren't real constructible numbers) then it is impossible to construct them *EXACTLY* but can be always expressed numerically with endless digital or rational decimal forms in accordance with your maths but *not mine* Right?
10^n, (10^n)*sin(40 degrees) and (10^n)*sin(50 degrees) units of length.
Where (n) is a natural number that corresponds to the number of digits to your approximations such that you have the triangle sides always with integers, Right?
But, I truly have checked the first 10 thousand digits of your endless approximations, where not a single case gave me any right-angle triangle you talk about, and so utterly I had noticed an error that is absolutely increasing drastically without limits to form the required right-angle triangle
So to say, where is your right-angle triangle that you are after it to convince the so little sheep about its true existence? wonder!
Do you mean that RAT is still staying somewhere at your sweet Paradise that stays deep into your minds? Wonder!
Or do you mean frankly that nothing can be achieved truly in mathematics without a very clear betray under the sunlight and everyone's own eyes and minds attention as well to the holiest theorem of Pythagoras? wonder
Is it truly a very smart act or very devilish *CRIME* acts by mythematickers to betray mercilessly also the so innocent human minds and uprising generations for all their lives about those many many too silly issues? Wonders!
Don't mathematics itself and societies you belong to (feed, drinks, clothes) you all to teach them true mathematics instead of cheating them and destroying their brains for day and night with so much of rubbish about your non-existing numbers going to no numbers with your subtle fiction of infinity to this so unbelievable limits? wonders
Aren't you so shameful of your own existence after all those too many elementary proofs brought solely by the *KING* to your attention where you still acting and pretending that you didn't see or hear about them? Wonders
Or do you want seriously more powerful proofs from the *SKY*? No wonder!
Don't you know yet that you are the core seed of all kinds of corruptions you see around? wonder!
So, no doubt that you have to be replaced not far away from now, FOR SURE
BKK
Who would believe you now anymore after a public published irrefutable proof about the non-existing angles like your 40 degrees angle?
Go and argue with the natural numbers themselves since they say the truth loudly 🔊 more than any human do, FOR SURE
🔊 Bassam Karzeddin 🔊
Chris M. Thomasson
2023-08-14 03:50:29 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam karzeddin
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Dan Christensen
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Dan Christensen
Post by bassam king karzeddin
It mustn't be used in any serious physical important studies since this would be very dangerous FOR SURE
You mean like landing a probe with near pinpoint accuracy on Mars, so far away that a radio signal take several minutes to arrive there from Earth. Let's see you do that with your goofy little system, Crank Boy. Counting your fingers and toes just won't do it.
You are a typical Academic professional mathematician, Right?
No.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Then keep the technology issues aside for its true makers, since they are certainly better than you in your maths, but you don't know this fact yet
The math works with amazing precision. Deal with it, Crank Boy. Your goofy system is entirely useless.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
What did I mean exactly is something that is impossible to be well-understood especially by YOU
I meant to say along with your example if the distance in (mm) from a position on earth you choose to a position on Mars is (N) (mm), where (N) is a natural number and a side of any right-angle triangle, and once you reduce that distance only by one (mm), then that triangle is no more any right angle, FOR SURE
Pure gibberish!
Post by bassam king karzeddin
If you still can't believe what I tought you earlier,
You can't teach anything, BKK. Your mission seems to be to confuse and mislead students to bring us back to the stone age. Or maybe you are just extremely stupid. Or both.
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Dare you get your 40 degrees angle in only one triangle, but with ***EXACT*** known sides moron?
Did that yesterday for the 100th time. A triangle with sides 1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length. Deal with it, Crank Boy. Your pathetic little system will never go anywhere. It won't get you to the next village, never mind landing on Mars. Yes, I can see you are insanely jealous. A total failure.
Dan
Download my DC Proof 2.0 freeware at http://www.dcproof.com
Visit my Math Blog at http://www.dcproof.wordpress.com
[1, sin(40 degrees) and sin(50 degrees) units of length]
And since those angles are well-known to be a real irrational algebraic number (that aren't real constructible numbers) then it is impossible to construct them *EXACTLY* but can be always expressed numerically with endless digital or rational decimal forms in accordance with your maths but *not mine* Right?
10^n, (10^n)*sin(40 degrees) and (10^n)*sin(50 degrees) units of length.
Where (n) is a natural number that corresponds to the number of digits to your approximations such that you have the triangle sides always with integers, Right?
But, I truly have checked the first 10 thousand digits of your endless approximations, where not a single case gave me any right-angle triangle you talk about, and so utterly I had noticed an error that is absolutely increasing drastically without limits to form the required right-angle triangle
So to say, where is your right-angle triangle that you are after it to convince the so little sheep about its true existence? wonder!
Do you mean that RAT is still staying somewhere at your sweet Paradise that stays deep into your minds? Wonder!
Or do you mean frankly that nothing can be achieved truly in mathematics without a very clear betray under the sunlight and everyone's own eyes and minds attention as well to the holiest theorem of Pythagoras? wonder
Is it truly a very smart act or very devilish *CRIME* acts by mythematickers to betray mercilessly also the so innocent human minds and uprising generations for all their lives about those many many too silly issues? Wonders!
Don't mathematics itself and societies you belong to (feed, drinks, clothes) you all to teach them true mathematics instead of cheating them and destroying their brains for day and night with so much of rubbish about your non-existing numbers going to no numbers with your subtle fiction of infinity to this so unbelievable limits? wonders
Aren't you so shameful of your own existence after all those too many elementary proofs brought solely by the *KING* to your attention where you still acting and pretending that you didn't see or hear about them? Wonders
Or do you want seriously more powerful proofs from the *SKY*? No wonder!
Don't you know yet that you are the core seed of all kinds of corruptions you see around? wonder!
So, no doubt that you have to be replaced not far away from now, FOR SURE
BKK
Who would believe you now anymore after a public published irrefutable proof about the non-existing angles like your 40 degrees angle?
Do you seriously not understand how to create a 9-ary circle division?
Think of a pizza cut into 9 equal pieces. You have got to be full of
shit not when you say 40 degree angle does not exist. Wow!
Post by bassam karzeddin
Go and argue with the natural numbers themselves since they say the truth loudly 🔊 more than any human do, FOR SURE
🔊 Bassam Karzeddin 🔊
Eram semper recta
2019-10-26 14:47:06 UTC
Permalink
Post by bassam king karzeddin
Post by Markus Klyver
I've followed John Gabriel quite a while now, as I find dumb/shitty/cranky math and physics funny. As I know how rude and completely unwilling John Gabriel is to learn anything new, this isn't a response to him.
1. The derivative f' of a real function f is the limit of (f(x+h)-f(x))/h as h→0, given the limit exists. Now, Gabriel claims this is ill-defined because generally limits are very hard to calculate. In fact, there is no systematic way to find a general limit.
This doesn't mean that the limit is ill-defined. I could define x to be the 657566556787686578987965:th prime number, without knowing what x is. I know that a such prime number exists, hence x is well-defined. Similarly for limits, given that the limit exists, it's well-defined. In fact, the topological limit in (real) metric spaces is unique, so we can talk about *the* limit.
There is no requirement on actually being able to *compute* something you've defined in order for it to be well-defined: an other example are integrals. Integrals are generally impossible to compute, and there is no known method or algoritm to calculate an arbitrary integral. We just know how to do it in very specific cases. Not being able to calculate an integral doesn't mean it's undefined.
(He doesn't understand integrals either, but I'm too lazy to explain why his "definition" is not a definition.)
I'm very surprised that he almost derived the more general definition of the derivative, but stumbled on the the finish line. An equivalent definition for the derivative is that f(x+h)-f(x) = Ah + hρ(h) for some function ρ that will go to 0 whenever h→0. To recover the usual definition, divide both sides with h and let h→0. Then (f(x+h)-f(x))/h = A+ρ(h) → A. This is the natural generalisation and usual definition of partial derivatives.
We can think of A as an linear approximation, since when h is small, then ρ(h) will be to (by the definition of a limit).
For example, for f(x)= x², we would have ρ(h)=h, which of course goes it zero when h does it.
2. Convergence and limits in metric spaces are things Gabriel repeatably misunderstands. When we define convergence, we do that in a space. What that means is that we already have a space, and try to formalise what it means for something to converge *in that space*.
This means there could be metric spaces in which Cauchy sequences do not converge, because we require the limit to be in the metric space. An example would be the partial sums of the decimal expansion of sqrt(2) in the rationals. This forms a sequence not converging, because if it did it would have to be sqrt(2). We can decide to view the same sequence via an inclusion mapping ℚ↪ℝ as metric spaces, in which the same sequence does converge.
Decimal expansions, as I mentioned above, are defined as limits. More specifically, they are defined to be the limit of the partial sums. Since the partial sums of a real decimal expansion is Cauchy, they will converge in the real numbers. Metric spaces having this property are called complete.
One motivation for the real numbers is the completeness. Real functions over R also behave nicely, such as obtaining a minimum and maximum on compact sets (w.r.t. the Borel topology generated by open intervals).
Many layman texts go over the details of these properties, which is of course why John Gabriel doesn't understand them. Of course: if Gabriel actually read an undergrad textbook in real analysis, he would understand that these properties are not as "deep" and abstract as he think they are.
3. His "definition" of numbers makes no sense. He starts off with the concept of a point "as an abstract idea of where you are". This seems to imply a very physical definition, and not something mathematicians would find very satisfying. He the gives a vague explanation of travelling between points (already assuming all sorts of things about how the Euclidean space works, and what velocity is). He then defines "lines" and circles as "distances", ignoring the fact that a distance usually is a *number* and not a path.
Finally, when defining a "number", he already assumes what a magnitude is, which is only vaguely defined as "the size or extent" or something. He mentions lengths, masses and volumes, but these are physical objects. So again: we define something in terms of something that depend on the physical nature, which is not a satisfying definition for a mathematician.
He further assumes that these magnitudes exists on their on, but by his own criteria these objects could never be ratified because they simple make no sense. What does it mean to have an abstract magnitude, if you don't realise it in some form of underlying space? Of course, Gabriel doesn't mention the usage of Euclidean space and the implicit axiomatization. The axioms of Euclidean space of course follows as "theorems" if you implicitly assume them.
4. And oh, 3 <--> 5-2 makes no sense since 3 and 5-2 aren't logical statements. A statement can be logically equivalent to an other statement, but it makes no sense to say that a number is logically equivalent to an other number. You can't logically say "5 implies cat". But you can say "if I have 5 cats, I have a cat." This is a logical statement of the form "If x, then y" and it happens to be (always) true.
As John Gabriel might read it, I'll give an other example of something that's always false: "If a have no cat, then I have two cats". This statement is formally false, but it still makes logically and formally sense. It's a formal statement which you can evaluate and assign a truth value to. So saying that "x is less or equal to 4" just means that we can check if x satisfies (x strictly less than 4) OR (x=4). This is a logical statement combined made up with two different statements connected with a truth-functional OR. This is the same OR which you encounter in a computer or electronics engineering class. One important difference is, of course, that physical logical gates depend on the physical reality whilst truth functionals are formalised by propositional logic.
So in short: above is my selection of favourite parts of what John Gabriel doesn't understand about elementary mathematics (mostly focused on analysis). I'll be very eager to see if he responds to this. Maybe he'll feature me in one video, it's quite comical to be called an ape by a crank.
In short, I'm not sorry to say that you lost since you stubbornly refuse to understand that with many too elementary published proofs here on sci.math by JG about the standard calculus taught at schools and universities is quite wrong at the base, For sure
But to be fair enough, it isn't even so bad enough as to consider it for little carpentry works that don't need that accuracy, where this entirely was made by engineers or for practical works
It mustn't be used in any serious physical important studies since this would be very dangerous FOR SURE
BKK
Klyver is another lost idiot equivalent to Dan Christensen. You can't fix ape.
Sergio
2019-10-27 15:50:46 UTC
Permalink
Post by Markus Klyver
I've followed John Gabriel quite a while now,
why do you follow a troll ? unemployed ? bored shit-less ?

you do realize everyone calls him "birdbrain" for a reason, right ?
bassam karzeddin
2023-10-10 12:28:00 UTC
Permalink
Post by Markus Klyver
I've followed John Gabriel quite a while now, as I find dumb/shitty/cranky math and physics funny. As I know how rude and completely unwilling John Gabriel is to learn anything new, this isn't a response to him.
1. The derivative f' of a real function f is the limit of (f(x+h)-f(x))/h as h→0, given the limit exists. Now, Gabriel claims this is ill-defined because generally limits are very hard to calculate. In fact, there is no systematic way to find a general limit.
This doesn't mean that the limit is ill-defined. I could define x to be the 657566556787686578987965:th prime number, without knowing what x is. I know that a such prime number exists, hence x is well-defined. Similarly for limits, given that the limit exists, it's well-defined. In fact, the topological limit in (real) metric spaces is unique, so we can talk about *the* limit.
There is no requirement on actually being able to *compute* something you've defined in order for it to be well-defined: an other example are integrals. Integrals are generally impossible to compute, and there is no known method or algoritm to calculate an arbitrary integral. We just know how to do it in very specific cases. Not being able to calculate an integral doesn't mean it's undefined.
(He doesn't understand integrals either, but I'm too lazy to explain why his "definition" is not a definition.)
I'm very surprised that he almost derived the more general definition of the derivative, but stumbled on the the finish line. An equivalent definition for the derivative is that f(x+h)-f(x) = Ah + hρ(h) for some function ρ that will go to 0 whenever h→0. To recover the usual definition, divide both sides with h and let h→0. Then (f(x+h)-f(x))/h = A+ρ(h) → A. This is the natural generalisation and usual definition of partial derivatives.
We can think of A as an linear approximation, since when h is small, then ρ(h) will be to (by the definition of a limit).
For example, for f(x)= x², we would have ρ(h)=h, which of course goes it zero when h does it.
2. Convergence and limits in metric spaces are things Gabriel repeatably misunderstands. When we define convergence, we do that in a space. What that means is that we already have a space, and try to formalise what it means for something to converge *in that space*.
This means there could be metric spaces in which Cauchy sequences do not converge, because we require the limit to be in the metric space. An example would be the partial sums of the decimal expansion of sqrt(2) in the rationals. This forms a sequence not converging, because if it did it would have to be sqrt(2). We can decide to view the same sequence via an inclusion mapping ℚ↪ℝ as metric spaces, in which the same sequence does converge.
Decimal expansions, as I mentioned above, are defined as limits. More specifically, they are defined to be the limit of the partial sums. Since the partial sums of a real decimal expansion is Cauchy, they will converge in the real numbers. Metric spaces having this property are called complete.
One motivation for the real numbers is the completeness. Real functions over R also behave nicely, such as obtaining a minimum and maximum on compact sets (w.r.t. the Borel topology generated by open intervals).
Many layman texts go over the details of these properties, which is of course why John Gabriel doesn't understand them. Of course: if Gabriel actually read an undergrad textbook in real analysis, he would understand that these properties are not as "deep" and abstract as he think they are.
3. His "definition" of numbers makes no sense. He starts off with the concept of a point "as an abstract idea of where you are". This seems to imply a very physical definition, and not something mathematicians would find very satisfying. He the gives a vague explanation of travelling between points (already assuming all sorts of things about how the Euclidean space works, and what velocity is). He then defines "lines" and circles as "distances", ignoring the fact that a distance usually is a *number* and not a path.
Finally, when defining a "number", he already assumes what a magnitude is, which is only vaguely defined as "the size or extent" or something. He mentions lengths, masses and volumes, but these are physical objects. So again: we define something in terms of something that depend on the physical nature, which is not a satisfying definition for a mathematician.
He further assumes that these magnitudes exists on their on, but by his own criteria these objects could never be ratified because they simple make no sense. What does it mean to have an abstract magnitude, if you don't realise it in some form of underlying space? Of course, Gabriel doesn't mention the usage of Euclidean space and the implicit axiomatization. The axioms of Euclidean space of course follows as "theorems" if you implicitly assume them.
4. And oh, 3 <--> 5-2 makes no sense since 3 and 5-2 aren't logical statements. A statement can be logically equivalent to an other statement, but it makes no sense to say that a number is logically equivalent to an other number. You can't logically say "5 implies cat". But you can say "if I have 5 cats, I have a cat." This is a logical statement of the form "If x, then y" and it happens to be (always) true.
As John Gabriel might read it, I'll give an other example of something that's always false: "If a have no cat, then I have two cats". This statement is formally false, but it still makes logically and formally sense. It's a formal statement which you can evaluate and assign a truth value to. So saying that "x is less or equal to 4" just means that we can check if x satisfies (x strictly less than 4) OR (x=4). This is a logical statement combined made up with two different statements connected with a truth-functional OR. This is the same OR which you encounter in a computer or electronics engineering class. One important difference is, of course, that physical logical gates depend on the physical reality whilst truth functionals are formalised by propositional logic.
So in short: above is my selection of favourite parts of what John Gabriel doesn't understand about elementary mathematics (mostly focused on analysis). I'll be very eager to see if he responds to this. Maybe he'll feature me in one video, it's quite comical to be called an ape by a crank.
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